Question : 71. Greg tries to convince his instructor to give the midterm : 1201970

Psychology

71. Greg tries to convince his instructor to give the midterm exam in the same room in which the class is held because he read that it would improve his chances of getting a higher score. Greg must know about
A. state-dependent memory.
B. context-specific memory.
C. metamemory.
D. the method of loci.

72. Jill has trouble remembering her classmates’ names outside of the classroom. This effect is probably due to
A. context-specific memory.
B. interference.
C. state-dependent memory.
D. decay.

73. Sharmin is trying to remember the hilarious conversation she had with her friends last night. If Sharmin wanted to utilize context-specific memory to help remember the conversation topics, she should
A. recreate the mood she was in when the conversation took place.
B. concentrate on the last topic they discussed.
C. cluster the topics into meaningful groups of information.
D. return to the restaurant in which they had the conversation.

74. Suppose you overheard a spicy rumor one night when you were drunk at a bar but could not recall it the next day when you were sober. This example illustrates
A. dissociation.
B. context-specific learning.
C. state-dependent learning.
D. anterograde amnesia.

75. While studying diligently for his midterm, Raoul consumes massive quantities of sugar by drinking Rush cola and eating Grandma’s cookies. The day of the midterm examination, Raoul is careful to eat nutritious, low-sugar foods and drink lots of milk and water. During the exam, Raoul has trouble recalling what he had studied. This can best be explained by
A. context-specific memory.
B. retroactive inhibition.
C. state-dependent memory.
D. proactive inhibition.

76. Whenever Felix and Oscar argue, they bring up past issues. When they are getting along well, they have a hard time remembering what they argued about. What might produce this difference in the retrieval of memories?
A. Flashbulb memory effect
B. Primacy of memories effect
C. General knowledge effect
D. Mood congruency effect

77. Belinda suffers from bipolar disorder: sometimes she can be very happy and almost deliriously excited, whereas at other times she becomes extremely depressed. When she is in her excited state, she is introduced to several people whom she has never met before. She doesn’t encounter them again for a few weeks, but when she does she is feeling depressed. Which of the following is true?
A. She is more likely to remember their names than if she were excited.
B. She is less likely to remember their names than if she were excited.
C. She is about equally likely to remember their names regardless of what state she is in.
D. She definitely will not remember their names in her depressed state but might remember their faces.

78. The semantic memory network theory says that
A. concepts are represented by many interconnected associations within the brain.
B. information is stored in memory by a process called spreading activation.
C. semantic memories must be processed by sensory and short-term memory before entering long-term memory.
D. information is more likely to be remembered if it is processed deeply.

79. Which of the following is the best example of spreading activation at work?
A. You start thinking about cars, and that leads you to think about trucks and sport-utility vehicles.
B. Your sensory registers allow you to perceive smooth motion when you move your head.
C. You find it difficult to remember happy things when you are in a bad mood.
D. You find it easy to relearn vocabulary words that you had once learned but forgot.

80. Semantic network models predict that people will respond more quickly to the question “Can a bat fly?” than they will to “Is a bat a mammal?” because
A. of the primacy effect.
B. the first question requires a deeper level of processing.
C. they probably have a stronger association between “bat” and “wings” than “bat” and “mammal.”
D. the first question can be answered using short-term memory, but the second question cannot.

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July 1, 2023

21. The percentage-of-sales procedure arises from the idea that uncollectible amounts will vary with the volume of credit business. The firm estimates the appropriate percentage by studying its own experience or by inquiring into the experience of similar firms. Default rates generally fall within the range of .01% to .02% of credit sales.

22. The percentage-of-completion method measures the proportion of total work carried out during the accounting period either from engineers' estimates of the degree of completion or from the ratio of costs incurred to date to the total costs expected for the entire contract.

23. A common-size income statement expresses each expense and net income as a percentage of
A. assets.
B. revenues.
C. liabilities.
D. expenses.
E. shareholders’ equity.

24. If the firm has received a promise of payment but cannot measure this promise with reasonable reliability,
A. U.S. GAAP would permit revenue to be recognized, but IFRS would not permit revenue to be recognized.
B. U.S. GAAP would not permit revenue to be recognized, but IFRS would permit revenue to be recognized.
C. neither U.S. GAAP nor IFRS would permit revenue to be recognized.
D. U.S. GAAP and IFRS would permit revenue to be recognized.
E. none of the above

25. Which section includes income derived from a firm’s primary business activities as well as from activities peripherally related to operations? (The firm expects these sources of earnings to continue.)
A. income from continuing operations
B. income, gains, and losses from discontinued operations
C. extraordinary gains and losses
D. retained earnings
E. paid-in-capital

26. Operating risks
A. include variability in sales from changing economic conditions (cyclicality risk).
B. include variability in sales from short product life cycles (because of technological change or changes in consumer taste).
C. include variability of earnings that arises when the firm has a high proportion of fixed costs that do not change as sales change.
D. Answers a, b, and c are correct.
E. None of these answer choices is correct.

27. Ulrich Co. sells an asset to a buyer for a total sales price of $6,000 with a payment schedule of $2,000 in year 1, $2,000 in year 2, and $2,000 in year 3. The cost of the asset is $5,000. Under the cost-recovery-first method, what amount of net profit is recognized in year 3?
A. $2,000
B. $1,000
C. $666.67
D. $333.33
E. $0

28. Which of the following is true regarding income recognition?
A. The seller must have substantially performed its obligations to the customer (for example, by transferring ownership of goods to the customer).
B. The seller must have obtained an asset from the customer that it can reliably measure. If the asset is not cash, the seller must be reasonably certain of converting it into cash.
C. The firm recognizes expenses when it consumes assets.
D. If an event or transaction leads to the recognition of revenue, the firm matches the consumption of any assets (the expense), in time, with the revenue recognized.
E. all of the above

29. Cowden Properties

Cowden Properties sold a condominium to Ms. Roberts for $90,000. Cowden originally acquired the condo at a cost of $40,000 and made improvements to the unit totaling $20,000. The contract for sale required Ms. Roberts to pay the $90,000 as follows: