see attachment:
1. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q2. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that:
[removed] a. It only focuses on things that can be measured
[removed] b. It takes time frame into consideration
[removed] c. It is too much based on subjective judgment
[removed] d. It does not entail prioritizing
Q3. Good functional requirements
[removed] a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed
[removed] b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do
[removed] c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do
[removed] d. Are created after development of the technical specifications
Q4. A project can be terminated prematurely because the original objectives may no longer be valid.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q5. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is:
[removed] a. A chart of accounts
[removed] b. A code of accounts
[removed] c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart)
[removed] d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve)
Q6. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is:
[removed] a. Staff empowerment
[removed] b. Technical requirements of the project
[removed] c. Theory X management principles
[removed] d. Theory Y management principles
Q7. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q8. The poor man’s hierarchy is a method for:
[removed] a. Project estimation
[removed] b. Project scheduling
[removed] c. WBS construction
[removed] d. Project selection
Q9. Ensuring a one-to-one correspondence between specification items and general design items is a feature of:
[removed] a. Scope statement definition
[removed] b. WBS construction
[removed] c. Rapid prototyping
[removed] d. Configuration management
Q10. The astute project manager typically uses only one management style in order not to confuse his/her teammates.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q11. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in:
[removed] a. PERT
[removed] b. GERT
[removed] c. VERT
[removed] d. Project Evaluation
Q12. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)?
[removed] a. $750
[removed] b. $1,000
[removed] c. $1,250
[removed] d. $1,333
Q13. If review of a project’s status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is:
[removed] a. On budget, behind schedule
[removed] b. On budget, ahead of schedule
[removed] c. Over budget, behind schedule
[removed] d. Over budget, ahead of schedule
Q14. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q15. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is:
[removed] a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates
[removed] b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan
[removed] c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant
[removed] d. To re-baseline the project budget
Q16. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q17. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q18. A project team structure that closely reflects the physical structure of the deliverable is known as:
[removed] a. Egoless
[removed] b. Specialty
[removed] c. Surgical
[removed] d. Isomorphic
Q19. Which of the following is an example of a project?
[removed] a. Maintaining e-mail addresses
[removed] b. Capacity planning
[removed] c. Submitting travel and expense reports
[removed] d. Sending monthly reports to top management
Q20. The critical path:
[removed] a. Provides the duration of a project
[removed] b. Has the shortest duration on a project
[removed] c. Is the most expensive path to implement
[removed] d. Contains the project’s most significant tasks
Q21. In risk management, insurance is an example of:
[removed] a. Risk avoidance
[removed] b. Risk deflection
[removed] c. Risk acceptance
[removed] d. Contingency planning
Q22. The bottom-most level of the WBS — the level at which project budget and schedule data are captured — is called:
[removed] a. Work package
[removed] b. Code of accounts
[removed] c. Budget baseline
[removed] d. Change control level
Q23. What is the function of a change control board (CCB) in configuration management?
[removed] a. To assess the management impacts of change requests
[removed] b. To initiate changes needed on the project
[removed] c. To focus on the technical implication of change requests
[removed] d. To approve change requests coming from senior management
Q24. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can:
[removed] a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project
[removed] b. Show how many resources will be used on the project
[removed] c. Show the interdependencies of tasks
[removed] d. Show actual versus planned schedule status
Q25. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q26. A laissez-faire management style may lead to a ship without rudder syndrome.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q27. The resource planning tool that enables us to identify who we need to carry out what tasks is called:
[removed] a. A resource Gantt chart
[removed] b. A resource matrix (also called the responsibility chart)
[removed] c. A resource ogive
[removed] d. A resource loading chart (also called a resource histogram)
Q28. When we have objective data on the probability of an event, we are involved with decision making under certainty.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q29. Which of the following is a scope planning tool?
[removed] a. Benefit/cost analysis
[removed] b. WBS
[removed] c. Earned Value analysis
[removed] d. Fast tracking
Q30. The Theory X approach to managing workers is a classic example of a top-down view of how people should be managed.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q31. Scope creep means:
[removed] a. Needs emergence and identification
[removed] b. Uncontrolled changes to a project’s requirements during project execution
[removed] c. Migration of project needs to requirements
[removed] d. Imprecise scope statement
Q32. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q33. Concurrent engineering involves overlapping tasks and phases to accelerate a project’s schedule.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q34. Bottom-up estimates:
[removed] a. Are based on historical trends
[removed] b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed] c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation
[removed] d. a and c
Q35. Using working time or elapsed time to calculate the time it will take to complete a task produces the same results.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q36. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q37. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q38. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is:
[removed] a. Management by Objectives
[removed] b. Management by Exception
[removed] c. Management by Walking Around
[removed] d. Management by Control Limits
Q39. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time?
[removed] a. Resource Gantt chart
[removed] b. Resource matrix
[removed] c. S-Curve
[removed] d. Resource leveling
Q40. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system?
[removed] a. SMART
[removed] b. KISS
[removed] c. MBO
[removed] d. LOWBALLING
Q41. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have?
[removed] a. 0.5 hours
[removed] b. 1.5 hours
[removed] c. 2.5 hours
[removed] d. 8.5 hours
Q42. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q43. Configuration management is a:
[removed] a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs
[removed] b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements
[removed] c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them
[removed] d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input
Q44. According to PMI, a WBS should focus on
[removed] a. Tasks
[removed] b. Deliverables
[removed] c. Interrelationships among activities
[removed] d. Cost of the project
Q45. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request?
[removed] a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources
[removed] b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources
[removed] c. If the request is coming from a valued customer
[removed] d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer
Q46. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel?
[removed] a. Crashing
[removed] b. Fast tracking
[removed] c. Leveling
[removed] d. Hammocking
Q47. Top-down estimates (also called parametric estimates):
[removed] a. Are based on historical trends
[removed] b. Can be derived from the WBS
[removed] c. Can be determined by analyzing work packages
[removed] d. Provide accurate assessments of project costs
Q48. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves.
[removed] a. true
[removed] b. false
Q49. Definitive estimates are generally derived from:
[removed] a. Bottom-up estimates
[removed] b. Top-down estimates
[removed] c. Expert judgment cost estimates
[removed] d. Order of magnitude estimates
Q50. An effective project manager must:
[removed] a. Tell his team members what to do
[removed] b. Be the most capable person on the team technically
[removed] c. Be focused on achieving results
[removed] d. Not trust his team members to achieve results without his personal attention to detail