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Question : MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement : 1196214

Accounting

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE.

Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21)

A report that measures financial and nonfinancial performance measures for various organization units in a single report is called a (n): 21)

______ A)

balanced scorecard. B)

unbalanced scorecard. C)

non-financial scorecard. D)

financial report scorecard. E)

imbalanced scorecard.

22)

The balanced-scorecard approach usually includes all of the following EXCEPT 22)

______ A)

time measures. B)

innovation measures. C)

profitability measures. D)

customer satisfaction measures. E)

direct materials measures.

23)

Which of the following is NOT a step in designing an accounting-based performance measure? 23)

______ A)

choosing the timing of feedback B)

choosing a variable(s) that represents subunit’s financial goals C)

choosing definitions D)

choosing a variable that represents top management’s financial goals E)

choosing a target against which to gauge performance

24)

Should an investment be defined as total assets or total assets minus liabilities? This question is considered as part of which step in designing an accounting-based performance measure? 24)

______ A)

choosing variables that represent top management’s financial goals B)

choosing measures of key items C)

choosing the timing of feedback D)

choosing definitions of key items E)

choosing a variable that represents a subunit’s financial goals

25)

Which of the following approaches include investment in a performance measure? 25)

______ A)

ROI and ROS B)

ROI and RI C)

ROS and RI D)

ROI, EVA, and RI E)

EVA and ROI

26)

Which of the following incorporates the amount of investment into a performance measure? 26)

______ A)

both dividend income and residual B)

dividend income C)

residual income D)

both residual income and return on investment E)

return on investment

27)

Berger Publishing has two divisions which operate autonomously. Their results for 2001 were as follows:

 

TorontoVancouver

Sales$5,000,000$6,000,000

Contribution margin2,500,0003,000,000

Operating income2,000,0003,500,000

Investment base (total assets) 6,500,0007,500,000

 

The company’s desired rate of return is 15%.

 

What are the respective return-on-investment ratios for the Toronto and Vancouver divisions? 27)

______ A)

0.38; 0.45 B)

0.04; 0.58 C)

0.31; 0.47 D)

0.38; 0.40 E)

0.77; 1.25

28)

Which of the following is FALSE concerning the ROI performance measure? 28)

______ A)

Net assets are sometimes used as the denominator, and net assets are sometimes used as the numerator. B)

The usual formulation is [income / total assets]. C)

Some companies use net assets (assets minus liabilities) as the numerator. D)

Some companies use net assets (assets minus liabilities) as the denominator. E)

ROI is also called the AARR.

29)

During the past year Badger Company had a net income of $175,000. What is the ROI if the investment is $25,000? 29)

______ A)

0.142 B)

5.450 C)

5.140 D)

7.000 E)

2.500

30)

The most popular approach to incorporating the investment base into a performance measure is 30)

______ A)

residual income. B)

income on return. C)

economic value added. D)

return on investment. E)

opportunity cost.

 

 

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July 1, 2023
    

 

 

161. U.S. GAAP and IFRS require firms to recognize as assets identifiable intangibles acquired in external market transactions.  Which of the following is/are true? A. The exchange between an independent buyer and seller provides evidence of the existence of expected future benefits, and the exchange price provides evidence of the fair value of those benefits. B. In external market transactions, identifiable intangibles include patents, trademarks, customer lists, and other economic resources ready for use, as well as in-process technologies with uncertain future benefits. C. In external market transactions, identifiable intangible assets have either finite lives or indefinite lives.D. In external market transactions, firms must amortize intangible assets with finite lives, generally using the straight-line method. E. all of the above

 

162. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is/are not true? A. U.S. GAAP provides fourteen criteria, any one of which qualifies a lease as a capital lease. B. IFRS provides general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk.C. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases. D. The FASB and the IASB have undertaken a joint project involving the lessee’s accounting for leases which may result in treating all leases as capital leases.E. all of the above

 

163. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is not true? A. The criteria attempt to identify the entity, whether lessor or lessee, that enjoys the benefits and incurs the risk of the leased asset. B. When the lessor enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease.C. When the lessee enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease. D. IFRS provides more general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk. E. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases.

 

164. U.S. GAAP and IFRS account for notes and nonconvertible bonds payable similarly.Which of the following is/are not true? A. Firms initially record long-term notes and bonds at their issue price, the present value of the future contractual cash flows discounted at the market interest rate for the bonds at the time of issue. B. The market interest rate at the time of issue is the rate that discounts the contractual cash flows to the initial issue price.C. If the market interest rate equals the coupon rate for the bonds, the firm will issue the bonds for face value.D. If the market interest rate exceeds the coupon rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value. E. If the coupon rate exceeds the market interest rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value.

 

165. IFRS _____ firms to remeasure property, plant, and equipment upward for increases in fair value under certain conditions. U.S. GAAP _____ such upward remeasurements.  A. permits; permits B. permits; does not permit C. does not permit: does not permit D. does not permit: permits E. none of the above

 

166. Which of the following is not true? A. Firms reclassify gains and losses initially classified in other comprehensive income into net income when a confirming event subsequently occurs. B. Firms close amounts in other comprehensive income for a period to Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income at the end of the period.C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

167. Both U.S. GAAP and IFRS often refer to ownership of a(n) _____ of the voting stock of another entity as indicating control, unless evidence indicates that the owner cannot exercise control. A. direct investmentB. indirect investmentC. majorityD. minorityE. effective control

 

168. Which of the following is not true? A. Comprehensive income equals the net amount of revenues, expenses, gains, and losses during an accounting period. B. Authoritative guidance classifies revenues and expenses arising from a firm’s core business as components of net income. C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

169. The FASB and the IASB are reconsidering the role of uncertainty, or probability, in the definition, recognition, and measurement of liabilities. Existing recognition criteria include a probable future sacrifice of resources; one issue involves the minimum probability level to warrant recognition of an uncertain obligation as a liability. U.S. GAAP does not specify a minimum probability level, although the rule-of-thumb in practice is approximately _____ percent.  A. 50B. 60C. 70D. 80E. 90

 

170. Which of the following is not true? A. Acquisition cost for a merchandising firm includes the costs incurred to purchase and transport the inventory prior to sale. B. Acquisition cost for a manufacturing firm includes the direct material, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead cost to produce the inventory. C. If the market values of inventory items decline below acquisition cost prior to sale, firms must reduce their balance sheet carrying values using the lower of cost or market method.D. U.S. GAAP uses a combination of replacement cost and net realizable values to measure market value. E. U.S. GAAP and IFRS permits firms to remeasure inventories upward when market value exceeds acquisition cost.

 

 

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July 1, 2023
    

 

 

161. U.S. GAAP and IFRS require firms to recognize as assets identifiable intangibles acquired in external market transactions.  Which of the following is/are true? A. The exchange between an independent buyer and seller provides evidence of the existence of expected future benefits, and the exchange price provides evidence of the fair value of those benefits. B. In external market transactions, identifiable intangibles include patents, trademarks, customer lists, and other economic resources ready for use, as well as in-process technologies with uncertain future benefits. C. In external market transactions, identifiable intangible assets have either finite lives or indefinite lives.D. In external market transactions, firms must amortize intangible assets with finite lives, generally using the straight-line method. E. all of the above

 

162. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is/are not true? A. U.S. GAAP provides fourteen criteria, any one of which qualifies a lease as a capital lease. B. IFRS provides general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk.C. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases. D. The FASB and the IASB have undertaken a joint project involving the lessee’s accounting for leases which may result in treating all leases as capital leases.E. all of the above

 

163. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is not true? A. The criteria attempt to identify the entity, whether lessor or lessee, that enjoys the benefits and incurs the risk of the leased asset. B. When the lessor enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease.C. When the lessee enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease. D. IFRS provides more general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk. E. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases.

 

164. U.S. GAAP and IFRS account for notes and nonconvertible bonds payable similarly.Which of the following is/are not true? A. Firms initially record long-term notes and bonds at their issue price, the present value of the future contractual cash flows discounted at the market interest rate for the bonds at the time of issue. B. The market interest rate at the time of issue is the rate that discounts the contractual cash flows to the initial issue price.C. If the market interest rate equals the coupon rate for the bonds, the firm will issue the bonds for face value.D. If the market interest rate exceeds the coupon rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value. E. If the coupon rate exceeds the market interest rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value.

 

165. IFRS _____ firms to remeasure property, plant, and equipment upward for increases in fair value under certain conditions. U.S. GAAP _____ such upward remeasurements.  A. permits; permits B. permits; does not permit C. does not permit: does not permit D. does not permit: permits E. none of the above

 

166. Which of the following is not true? A. Firms reclassify gains and losses initially classified in other comprehensive income into net income when a confirming event subsequently occurs. B. Firms close amounts in other comprehensive income for a period to Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income at the end of the period.C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

167. Both U.S. GAAP and IFRS often refer to ownership of a(n) _____ of the voting stock of another entity as indicating control, unless evidence indicates that the owner cannot exercise control. A. direct investmentB. indirect investmentC. majorityD. minorityE. effective control

 

168. Which of the following is not true? A. Comprehensive income equals the net amount of revenues, expenses, gains, and losses during an accounting period. B. Authoritative guidance classifies revenues and expenses arising from a firm’s core business as components of net income. C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

169. The FASB and the IASB are reconsidering the role of uncertainty, or probability, in the definition, recognition, and measurement of liabilities. Existing recognition criteria include a probable future sacrifice of resources; one issue involves the minimum probability level to warrant recognition of an uncertain obligation as a liability. U.S. GAAP does not specify a minimum probability level, although the rule-of-thumb in practice is approximately _____ percent.  A. 50B. 60C. 70D. 80E. 90

 

170. Which of the following is not true? A. Acquisition cost for a merchandising firm includes the costs incurred to purchase and transport the inventory prior to sale. B. Acquisition cost for a manufacturing firm includes the direct material, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead cost to produce the inventory. C. If the market values of inventory items decline below acquisition cost prior to sale, firms must reduce their balance sheet carrying values using the lower of cost or market method.D. U.S. GAAP uses a combination of replacement cost and net realizable values to measure market value. E. U.S. GAAP and IFRS permits firms to remeasure inventories upward when market value exceeds acquisition cost.

 

 

default image
July 1, 2023
    

 

 

161. U.S. GAAP and IFRS require firms to recognize as assets identifiable intangibles acquired in external market transactions.  Which of the following is/are true? A. The exchange between an independent buyer and seller provides evidence of the existence of expected future benefits, and the exchange price provides evidence of the fair value of those benefits. B. In external market transactions, identifiable intangibles include patents, trademarks, customer lists, and other economic resources ready for use, as well as in-process technologies with uncertain future benefits. C. In external market transactions, identifiable intangible assets have either finite lives or indefinite lives.D. In external market transactions, firms must amortize intangible assets with finite lives, generally using the straight-line method. E. all of the above

 

162. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is/are not true? A. U.S. GAAP provides fourteen criteria, any one of which qualifies a lease as a capital lease. B. IFRS provides general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk.C. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases. D. The FASB and the IASB have undertaken a joint project involving the lessee’s accounting for leases which may result in treating all leases as capital leases.E. all of the above

 

163. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is not true? A. The criteria attempt to identify the entity, whether lessor or lessee, that enjoys the benefits and incurs the risk of the leased asset. B. When the lessor enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease.C. When the lessee enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease. D. IFRS provides more general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk. E. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases.

 

164. U.S. GAAP and IFRS account for notes and nonconvertible bonds payable similarly.Which of the following is/are not true? A. Firms initially record long-term notes and bonds at their issue price, the present value of the future contractual cash flows discounted at the market interest rate for the bonds at the time of issue. B. The market interest rate at the time of issue is the rate that discounts the contractual cash flows to the initial issue price.C. If the market interest rate equals the coupon rate for the bonds, the firm will issue the bonds for face value.D. If the market interest rate exceeds the coupon rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value. E. If the coupon rate exceeds the market interest rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value.

 

165. IFRS _____ firms to remeasure property, plant, and equipment upward for increases in fair value under certain conditions. U.S. GAAP _____ such upward remeasurements.  A. permits; permits B. permits; does not permit C. does not permit: does not permit D. does not permit: permits E. none of the above

 

166. Which of the following is not true? A. Firms reclassify gains and losses initially classified in other comprehensive income into net income when a confirming event subsequently occurs. B. Firms close amounts in other comprehensive income for a period to Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income at the end of the period.C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

167. Both U.S. GAAP and IFRS often refer to ownership of a(n) _____ of the voting stock of another entity as indicating control, unless evidence indicates that the owner cannot exercise control. A. direct investmentB. indirect investmentC. majorityD. minorityE. effective control

 

168. Which of the following is not true? A. Comprehensive income equals the net amount of revenues, expenses, gains, and losses during an accounting period. B. Authoritative guidance classifies revenues and expenses arising from a firm’s core business as components of net income. C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

169. The FASB and the IASB are reconsidering the role of uncertainty, or probability, in the definition, recognition, and measurement of liabilities. Existing recognition criteria include a probable future sacrifice of resources; one issue involves the minimum probability level to warrant recognition of an uncertain obligation as a liability. U.S. GAAP does not specify a minimum probability level, although the rule-of-thumb in practice is approximately _____ percent.  A. 50B. 60C. 70D. 80E. 90

 

170. Which of the following is not true? A. Acquisition cost for a merchandising firm includes the costs incurred to purchase and transport the inventory prior to sale. B. Acquisition cost for a manufacturing firm includes the direct material, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead cost to produce the inventory. C. If the market values of inventory items decline below acquisition cost prior to sale, firms must reduce their balance sheet carrying values using the lower of cost or market method.D. U.S. GAAP uses a combination of replacement cost and net realizable values to measure market value. E. U.S. GAAP and IFRS permits firms to remeasure inventories upward when market value exceeds acquisition cost.

 

 

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