task.
c. Job design is very open and flexible.
d. There are most likely fewer rules about how business is carried out than in a large
company.
e. All of the above are correct.
37) Offering a variety of flexible work arrangements does all of the following EXCEPT:
a. has a negative impact on women, who are most likely to request special arrangements.
b. can have a positive outcome related to shareholder returns.
c. attract employees who need special work arrangements due to personal or family needs.
c. provide employees with work/life balance.
d. retain employees who may have otherwise had to leave the company.
e. None of the above.
38) Labor force trends which are important to consider when designing a job are:
a. technology and globalization.
b. employee concerns and flexible work arrangements.
c. telecommuting and flextime.
d. competencies available in the work force and the aging work force.
e. work/life balance and offering appropriate flexible work arrangements. Final Examination 11 BAM 510 Human Resource Management
39) Rather than employees retiring completely, some organizations offer a “phased out”
retirement whereby employees take a part time or “as needed” position to help fill “hard to
fill” vacancies while still being able to be a contributing member of the work force. This is an
example of how important it is to consider ___________ when designing jobs.
a. technology
b. compressed work weeks
c. telecommuting
d. labor force trends
e. the aging work force
40) In regard to job design, a company must consider such things as whether the country they are
operating in has a collectivism or individualist culture, for example, and must also consider:
a. the supply of workers available in the country that have the required job specifications.
b. the education level of the local work force.
c. whether they should offer flexible work arrangements.
d. only A and B are correct.
e. None of the above.
41) A local manufacturing firm has had a turnover rate between 84% and 90% for the past five
years. All of the following statements are correct about this organization EXCEPT:
a. there are very few long term employees working for this organization.
b. productivity has been an issue due to work having to be reorganized each time someone
leaves.
c. a lot of time is spent orienting and training new employees.
d. retained employees are less likely to be promoted from within the company.
e. human resources and managers spent a lot of time conducting job interviews.
42) One physical therapist can see, on average, 8 patients per 8 hour day. If a physical therapy
office employs 6 full-time physical therapists, how many patients (outputs) should they be
able to see in 20 workdays?
a. 1280
b. 120
c. 960
d. 48
e. 1000
43) A custom wedding dress maker employs 5 seamstresses to assist her with alterations. During
the winter months the demand for her services declines, thereby _____________ her labor
and _____________.
a. decreasing; supply
b. decreasing; demand
c. increasing; demand
d. increasing; shortage
e. increasing; supply 12 Final Examination BAM 510 Human Resource Management
44) Offering early retirement to employees in order to handle a labor surplus could:
a. result in a labor shortage.
b. result in increased turnover of other employees.
c. increase costs for the organization temporarily.
d. still result in needing to lay off employees.
e. Both a and c are correct.
45) When using transfers or promotions to deal with a labor surplus in order to avoid a layoff, an
organization must first consider that:
a. employees cannot be laid off after they have been transferred.
b. early retirement packages must be the first approach.
c. a job analysis must be completed.
d. the employees they want to transfer may not have the necessary skills to perform the new
jobs.
e. compensation costs may increase.
46) Frederick’s Fine Jewelry, which follows a differentiation strategy by making custom jewelry, is
experiencing a labor shortage of front end sales clerks. In order to solve this issue the store
most likely will _____________ to fill the positions.
a. hire temporary workers
b. transfer current employees
c. outsource
d. recruit externally
e. Both b and d are correct.
47) Which workforce planning tactic should be used to most quickly deal with a labor surplus?
a. Early retirement
b. Layoff
c. Hiring freeze
d. Attrition
e. Transfer
48) The main driver of companies wanting to pursue offshoring is:
a. fewer employee concerns.
b. cheaper wages.
c. labor surpluses.
d. low unemployment rates.
e. less technological skills. Final Examination 13 BAM 510 Human Resource Management
49) When determining if someone meets the definition of an independent contractor, an
organization must look at all of the following EXCEPT:
a. employee benefits provided.
b. expenses reimbursed.
c. office space provided.
d. profit or loss incurred.
e. instruction received.
50) Recruitment involves all of the following EXCEPT:
a. identifying potential employees.
b. building the competency of potential employees.
c. convincing potential employees to apply for a job.
d. communicating job requirements.
e. explaining the company culture and values.
51) The following are all necessary in order to have a successful recruitment process EXCEPT:
a. designing a clear and accurate recruitment advertisement.
b. identifying the best sources for recruitment.
c. determining what outcome you are looking for.
d. having a recruiter, either internal or external, assist with the process.
e. having a full understanding of the job duties and qualifications.
52) Which of the following jobs would most likely not be appropriate to advertise for on-line?
a. Nurse
b. Secretary
c. Accountant
d. Manager
e. Janitor
53) Technology has impacted recruitment by offering the following options to help manage the
process EXCEPT:
a. application Service Providers.
b. recruitment application packages.
c. replacement charts.
d. online job postings and applications.
e. enterprise Resource Planning. 14 Final Examination BAM 510 Human Resource Management
54) Truth-in-hiring lawsuits can be reduced by doing all of the following EXCEPT:
a. offering a job contingent on acceptable references and the necessary background checks.
b. excluding employment-at-will information in an offer letter.
c. providing a realistic job preview.
d. do not provide amounts of expected bonuses or commissions in the offer letter.
e. provide up to date information about the company and the job.
55) PQR Logistics asked for information from their management staff about how timely the
recruiters were at responding to their recruitment needs, whether they felt that quality
applicants were being interviewed and hired, and how the overall recruitment process was
working. PQR is using which recruitment metric?
a. Hiring manager satisfaction
b. Time-to-fill
c. Cost-per-hire
d. Time-to-start
e. Turnover
56) At PQR Logistics the Logistics Director requested that the two Warehouse Supervisor positions
be filled on October 1. An offer was made to Supervisor A on October 16 and to Supervisor B
on October 21. Both Supervisors accepted the offer on these dates. Supervisor A started on
November 5 and Supervisor B started on November 14. What was the time to start for
Supervisor A and what was the time to fill for Supervisor B?
a. 16 and 45
b. 21 and 45
c. 36 and 21
d. 16 and 21
e. 16 and 36
57) Family Crisis Center had 100 applicants for its Executive Director position. Of the 100, 50
were identified as meeting the qualifications. Of those, 20 were received from the website ad,
18 were received from the newspaper ad and 12 came from employee referrals. Which
recruitment source had the best yield ratio?
a. Newspaper ad
b. Employee referrals
c. Website ad
d. Both a and b
e. None of the above because they did not reach a 75% yield ratio. Final Examination 15 BAM 510 Human Resource Management
58) A selection tool needs to be a consistent method of prediction over a certain period of time or
across a group of raters. This consistency demonstrates:
a. validity.
b. person-organization fit.
c. bias.
d. person-job fit.
e. reliability.
59) Personality inventories can identify certain characteristics EXCEPT:
a. whether someone has strong analytical skills.
b. whether someone will be dependable.
c. whether someone is outgoing or shy.
d. whether someone may have anger management issues.
e. whether someone will be cooperative with others.
60) All of the following are correct in regard to structured interviewing EXCEPT:
a. better job-related questions can be asked to determine if the individual will be successful.
b. it takes only a few minutes to determine if an applicant will be a good fit.
c. behavioral interviews are often more helpful in telling how the applicant has actually
handled situations in the past.
d. the process is more legally defensible should a claim of discrimination be filed.
e. the same type of information is gathered about all applicants making it easier to do
comparisons.
61) Marvin was disappointed to learn that he was no longer being considered for the construction
foreman position. He did well in the initial screening interview, passed his physical abilities
test, but did not do well in the panel interview step. If he would have had a good panel
interview he would have went on for a final interview with the VP of Operations. This
organization used the:
a. multiple-hurdle approach.
b. multiple-compensatory approach.
c. core competency approach.
d. multiple-cutoff approach.
e. compensatory approach.
62) You are designing the selection process for an assembly line position. Which of the following
selection methods would you most likely include in the selection process?
a. Application, interview, references
b. Application, interview, honesty test, physical ability test
c. Application, interview, criminal record check
d. Application, interview, references, physical ability test
e. Application, interview, criminal history check, competency test 16 Final Examination BAM 510 Human Resource Management
63) If you administer a selection tool and collect performance data at the same time, you are
testing for:
a. concurrent criterion-related validity.
b. construct validity.
c. content validity.
d. predictive criterion-related validity.
e. test-retest validity.
64) In order to be effective, learning objectives should:
a. describe what will be learned and how it should be applied on the job.
b. designed by upper management in order to show their support for the training.
c. be kept very broad so that they can be applied across departments and employees.
d. be based on what management identifies as important information for the employee to
have.
e. explain what knowledge the employee must have before being permitted to attend the
training.
65) In order to teach all employees how to use the organization’s HR information system to enroll
in their benefit plans, an online tutorial was created to take the employee through the process
step by step. This will save time on classroom learning and paying an instructor. This would
be an example of implementing training that is:
a. low tech and high touch.
b. high tech and high touch.
c. low tech and low touch.
d. high tech and low touch.
e. Both a and d are correct.
66) Janet prefers to attend training programs that offer group discussion and role playing
opportunities because it helps her remember the information. Therefore, Janet prefers
training that is:
a. high tech.
b. high touch.
c. low tech.
d. low touch.
e. Both b and c are correct.
67) Requiring an employee to watch a DVD about how to safely operate a new piece of equipment,
having them work with someone for one week using the new piece of equipment, then also
having them complete an online assessment to test their knowledge of the equipment would
be an example of:
a. E-learning.
b. blended learning.
c. operations and procedures manuals.
d. simulation.
e. on the job training. Final Examination 17 BAM 510 Human Resource Management
68) Which of the following statements is most accurate in regard to how organizational demands
impact training?
a. In depth training is critical for an organization using a differentiation strategy.
b. Large, mature organization’s find it difficult to have the resources to reward or
acknowledge training participation.
c. A smaller company most likely uses e-learning to train employees.
d. A company who has a cost leadership strategy will try to identify ways to save training
costs.
e. A company focused on innovation will most likely have training which emphasizes
customer service skills.
69) An organization designing an ethics training program should keep all of the following in mind
in regard to the content EXCEPT:
a. ensure that training offered is available and accessible to everyone.
b. include ethics training as part of new hire orientation.
c. offer ethics training just to those who have a profession which requires an oath related to
ethics.
d. include discussion about the importance of and regulations related to non-discrimination.
e. ensure that any training program offered discusses how ethics may be related to the
topic.
70) When an employee has behavioral or motivation issues that are impacting performance you
should:
a. define how their performance will be evaluated and what each standard means.
b. be sure the employee is clear about what is expected of them in their role.
c. show how performance measures support what the organization views as important.
d. consider redesigning the job if role concerns exist.
e. All of the above are correct.
71) Discipline can be either:
a. positive or progressive.
b. progressive or person-focused.
c. punitive or progressive.
d. preventative or positive.
e. progressive or preventative.
72) If you are trying to take a more positive approach to disciplinary action, all of the following
statements are accurate EXCEPT:
a. documentation is unnecessary since the intention is not to terminate the employee.
b. constructive feedback will be provided so that improvement can occur.
c. you will identify and address problems early before they get out of control.
d. the focus is on problem solving rather than punishing the employee.
e. the employee is given the responsibility of improving their own behavior. 18 Final Examination BAM 510 Human Resource Management
73) All of the following are examples of how organizational demands can impact the performance
management system of an organization EXCEPT:
a. considering the organizational culture and how it will impact whether employees support
and understand the performance management system selected.
b. designing a system which will most fairly evaluate telecommuters since they have limited
face to face interaction with coworkers and their supervisor.
c. creating a system which is both procedurally and distributively just in the eyes of the
employees.
d. ensuring that the evaluation method selected is aligned with the company strategy to
maintain competitive advantage.
e. determining which evaluation approach makes the most sense given the size of the
organization.
74) LMN Company recently received an order for one million products to be completed and
shipped within the next two months. In order to create an incentive for employees to work as
a team and increase production, which evaluation method may be most useful?
a. Direct measures
b. Forced-choice
c. Critical incident
d. Graphic rating scales
e. BARS
75) All of the following can impact an expatriate’s performance evaluation EXCEPT:
a. method of evaluation.
b. host country performance standards.
c. home country performance standards.
d. compensation adjustment.
e. timeliness of the evaluation.
76) In order to be considered a benchmark job, the job needs to be all of the following EXCEPT:
a. well known and recognized.
b. never previously used to set wage rates in the external labor market.
c. clearly and concisely described.
d. currently at an appropriate wage rate.
e. stable over time in regard to responsibilities.
77) An organization following a differentiation strategy would most likely offer a compensation mix
which was made up of:
a. annual salary.
b. comprehensive benefits.
c. performance bonus.
d. b and c are correct.
e. All of the above. 19 Final Examination BAM 510 Human Resource Management
78) Which of the following would cause an organization to increase their starting rate for a
position and thereby create wage compression for current employees?
a. Labor shortage
b. Increase in interest rates
c. COLAs
d. Decrease in inflation rates
e. Labor surplus
79) When determining how to set their level of wages, an organization should consider the
following:
a. Leading the market will create turnover.
b. Paying at market will help control labor expenses.
c. Lagging the market will lead to increased pay satisfaction.
d. Paying at market will decrease the number of applicants.
e. Leading the market will not attract more or better applicants.
80) To aid in determining what is compensable work time:
a. managers need to verify the accuracy of time records submitted.
b. consistently enforce a compensable time policy and discipline as appropriate.
c. clear polices should be in place explaining what is considered compensable time.
d. All of the above.
e. Only a and b are correct.
81) Employee motivation is primarily influenced by all of the following factors EXCEPT:
a. instrumentality.
b. goal setting.
c. valence.
d. ownership.
e. expectancy.
82) Jodi’s evaluation score was a 70% which meant she was eligible for a 3% increase to her base
hourly rate. This is an example of a:
a. differential piecework plan.
b. merit pay increase.
c. lump sum merit bonus.
d. straight piecework plan.
e. standard hour plan. Final Examination 20 BAM 510 Human Resource Management
83) Typically, RJS Industries gives employee an increase to their base rate based on the score
they receive on their performance evaluation. However, if an employee is red circled, rather
than an increase to their hourly rate, they receive a bonus equivalent to what the increase
would have been. RJS uses which of the following incentive plans?
a. Merit pay increase
b. Lump sum merit bonus
c. Standard hour plan
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above
84) Which of the following statements best explains why an organization may want to use a team
incentive plan rather than an individual incentive plan?
a. The efforts of a team are more difficult to monitor than each employee’s behavior.
b. Free rider issues can be avoided by using team based incentives.
c. Team incentives work best when jobs can function independently.
d. If individual incentives are overlooked, team performance will decrease.
e. Team incentives encourage employees to focus on communicating and cooperating with
each other.
85) All of the following are examples of components of an executive compensation package
EXCEPT:
a. fitness club membership.
b. stock options.
c. profit sharing bonus.
d. social security.
e. health insurance.
86) Which of the following employee benefits provides compensation for 26 weeks to an employee
who lost their job due to no fault of their own?
a. Long term disability insurance
b. Workers’ compensation
c. Social security
d. Unemployment insurance
e. Medicare
87) In order to be eligible for unemployment insurance an individual must do all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. file a claim with the appropriate state unemployment insurance agency.
b. decline job offers for 26 weeks in order to remain eligible.
c. meet their state’s eligibility requirements.
d. follow guidelines such as reporting income and job offers in order to remain eligible for
benefits.
e. register with their state’s employment service for reemployment assistance or training
program information. 21 Final Examination BAM 510 Human Resource Management
88) The purpose of consumer driven health plans is:
a. to provide access to a health insurance plan but have the employee pay the full cost.
b. to offer only a high deductible plan which will decrease employees’ use of the health
insurance plan.
c. to pay an employee wages when they lose time away from work for a personal illness or
injury.
d. to require the employee to select a primary care physician who can provide all of their
health care needs.
e. to give employees responsibility for their health care costs so that they pay more attention
to their health and make better health care decisions.
89) A catastrophic health care plan which does not pay for the first few thousand dollars of an
individual’s medical costs each year and only pays when the employee has a major medical
issue is known as a:
a. traditional health care plan.
b. health reimbursement account.
c. health savings account.
d. high deductible health plan.
e. self funded plan.
90) If an organization is pursuing a cost leadership strategy they will most likely offer:
a. pension plans.
b. a basic health insurance plan.
c. educational assistance.
d. an employee assistance program.
e. a variety of employee wellness programs.
91) The Norris-LaGuardia Act of 1932:
a. made it easier for employees to engage in union-organizing activities.
b. gave employers full power over how employees could be treated.
c. eliminated the right of employees to strike.
d. is no longer in effect.
e. holds unions liable for any unlawful activities by its members. Final Examination 22 BAM 510 Human Resource Management
92) The Teamsters are attempting to unionize the warehouse workers at Bruce’s employer. One of
the union representatives has called Bruce repeatedly at home to convince him the union is a
good thing and told him that if he does not support them there is the potential he could lose
his job. This statement made by the union representative is known as a/an:
a. union right.
b. collective bargaining.
c. unfair labor practice.
d. right to work law.
e. employee requirement.
93) In order for a union to be recognized by an organization:
a. all of its employees must sign a letter requesting to be unionized.
b. the employer writes a letter to the Federal Mediation and Conciliation Services.
c. at least a third of the employees must sign a petition which is sent to the NLRB.322
d. a secret ballot election must result in a majority of the employees voting for the union.
e. the Department of Labor must rule in the union’s favor.
94) All of the following are mandatory bargaining topics EXCEPT:
a. pension plans.
b. health insurance.
c. wages.
d. retiree benefits.
e. grievance processes.
95) Which of the following statements about worker-management groups is most accurate?
a. They are permitted to set employee wages and working conditions.
b. Participation on the group can be limited to those in a union.
c. The group’s purpose is to enhance productivity improvements within an organization.
d. The NLRB monitors each group’s activities through a formal reporting structure.
e. They originated as a result of the Taft-Hartley Act.
96) Bruce operates a small medical practice with 10 employees. He offers a competitive
compensation and benefits package. He has implemented an annual performance evaluation
system that includes goal setting for each employee. He also has set aside money in his
budget to provide educational assistance for his staff. He also allows the staff to self
schedule so that they can meet their personal needs while still meeting the office and patient
needs. Due to all of this his office has experienced minimal turnover during the past 3 years.
This can be best described as a/an:
a. internal alignment.
b. deadly combination.
c. uniqueness.
d. external alignment.
e. powerful connection. 23 Final Examination BAM 510 Human Resource Management
97) STU Industries has a full time CAD designer position currently open. This position is critical
to their ongoing operations and without it they may lose customers and not meet production
deadlines. Given this information, STU Industries should fill this position:
a. by using a contingent worker.
b. by hiring someone with CAD experience part time to see how it works out.
c. by hiring a recent college graduate.
d. by outsourcing it to a local engineering firm.
e. by hiring their own full time employee who has CAD experience.
98) If the contributions an employee makes to an organization are said to be unique, which of the
following will most likely occur?
a. The employee will be paid below the market for their type of position.
b. The KSAs the employee has are easily found in the labor market, should the person leave
the organization.
c. The employee will not contribute to the competitive advantage and overall success of the
organization.
d. The strategic value the employee brings to the organization will be low.
e. The organization will be inclined to help to pay for the employee’s continuing education.
99) A car salesperson who contributes directly to the success of the dealership by using their
specialized selling skills would be most likely considered a/an:
a. alliance partner.
b. job-based employee.
c. contingent worker.
d. core employee.
e. contract worker.
100) The corporate headquarters of a large marketing firm uses Greenthumb Landscapers to mow
their property, weed the landscaping, plant and water the flowers, etc. The employees at
Greenthumb that provide the services at the corporate headquarter’s building would be most
likely considered:
a. job-based employees.
b. contingent workers.
c. alliance partners.
d. contract workers.
e. core employees.
