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Question : 51) To achieve gains from trade, a country A) needs to : 1238357

Economics

 

51) To achieve gains from trade, a country

A) needs to have an absolute advantage in the production of all goods.

B) specializes in the producing a good in which it has a lower opportunity cost.

C) must produce at a point beyond its PPF.

D) should produce at the midpoint of its PPF.

E) needs to have an absolute advantage in the production of at least one good.

52) Specialization and trade

A) does not benefit anyone.

B) allows nations to produce inside their individual production possibilities frontier.

C) allows nations to consume combinations of products that are outside their individual production possibilities frontier.

D) shifts the production possibilities frontier inward.

E) shifts the production possibilities frontier outward.

53) The United States is one of the richest nations in the world,

A) so it does not need to trade with poor nations in order to achieve any gains from trade.

B) so it might not have a comparative advantage in producing any goods.

C) but it can still benefit from specialization and trade.

D) so it must have a comparative advantage in the production of all goods.

E) so it must have an absolute advantage in the production of all goods.

54) Specialization and trade make a country better off because with trade, the country can consume at a point

A) outside its production possibilities frontier.

B) inside its production possibilities frontier.

C) on its production possibilities frontier.

D) on its trading partner’s production possibilities frontier.

E) inside its trading partner’s production possibilities frontier.

55) By specializing and trading, a country is able to

A) obtain the absolute advantage in the goods it produces.

B) consume but not to produce combinations of goods that lie beyond its production possibilities frontier.

C) produce but not to consume combinations of goods that lie beyond its production possibilities frontier.

D) both produce and consume combinations of goods that lie beyond its production possibilities frontier.

E) neither produce nor consume combinations of goods that lie beyond its production possibilities frontier.

56) With no international trade, a country ________ consume at a point outside of its PPF; with international trade, a country ________ consume at a point outside of its PPF.

A) cannot; can

B) can; cannot

C) can; can

D) cannot; cannot

E) None of the above answers is correct because the presence or absence of international trade has nothing to do with where a country consumes in comparison to its PPF.

57) In terms of a nation’s production possibilities frontier, what impact does international trade have?

A) International trade shifts the nation’s production possibilities frontier outward.

B) International trade shifts the nation’s production possibilities frontier inward.

C) International trade allows the nation to consume at a point outside its production possibilities frontier.

D) International trade shifts the production possibilities frontier outward for the goods that are exported and inward for the goods that are imported.

E) International trade shifts the production possibilities frontier outward for the goods that are imported and inward for the goods that are exported.

58) The gains from trade include:

i. lower prices from competition

ii. greater output from specialization

iii. greater variety of goods and services available

A) i and iii only

B) ii and iii only

C) i and ii only

D) i, ii, and iii

E) ii only

59) If a nation has an absolute advantage in producing a good, then it

A) will have a comparative advantage in producing that good.

B) will have no need to trade with other nations.

C) will always specialize in that good.

D) might or might not have a comparative advantage in producing that good.

E) will not have a comparative advantage in producing that good.

60) In one hour John can produce 20 loaves of bread or 8 cakes. In one hour Phyllis can produce 30 loaves of bread or 15 cakes. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Phyllis has a comparative advantage in producing bread.

B) John has a comparative advantage in producing cakes.

C) Phyllis has an absolute advantage in both goods.

D) John has an absolute advantage in both goods.

E) Phyllis has a comparative advantage in producing both cakes and bread.

 

 

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July 1, 2023
    

 

 

161. U.S. GAAP and IFRS require firms to recognize as assets identifiable intangibles acquired in external market transactions.  Which of the following is/are true? A. The exchange between an independent buyer and seller provides evidence of the existence of expected future benefits, and the exchange price provides evidence of the fair value of those benefits. B. In external market transactions, identifiable intangibles include patents, trademarks, customer lists, and other economic resources ready for use, as well as in-process technologies with uncertain future benefits. C. In external market transactions, identifiable intangible assets have either finite lives or indefinite lives.D. In external market transactions, firms must amortize intangible assets with finite lives, generally using the straight-line method. E. all of the above

 

162. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is/are not true? A. U.S. GAAP provides fourteen criteria, any one of which qualifies a lease as a capital lease. B. IFRS provides general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk.C. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases. D. The FASB and the IASB have undertaken a joint project involving the lessee’s accounting for leases which may result in treating all leases as capital leases.E. all of the above

 

163. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is not true? A. The criteria attempt to identify the entity, whether lessor or lessee, that enjoys the benefits and incurs the risk of the leased asset. B. When the lessor enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease.C. When the lessee enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease. D. IFRS provides more general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk. E. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases.

 

164. U.S. GAAP and IFRS account for notes and nonconvertible bonds payable similarly.Which of the following is/are not true? A. Firms initially record long-term notes and bonds at their issue price, the present value of the future contractual cash flows discounted at the market interest rate for the bonds at the time of issue. B. The market interest rate at the time of issue is the rate that discounts the contractual cash flows to the initial issue price.C. If the market interest rate equals the coupon rate for the bonds, the firm will issue the bonds for face value.D. If the market interest rate exceeds the coupon rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value. E. If the coupon rate exceeds the market interest rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value.

 

165. IFRS _____ firms to remeasure property, plant, and equipment upward for increases in fair value under certain conditions. U.S. GAAP _____ such upward remeasurements.  A. permits; permits B. permits; does not permit C. does not permit: does not permit D. does not permit: permits E. none of the above

 

166. Which of the following is not true? A. Firms reclassify gains and losses initially classified in other comprehensive income into net income when a confirming event subsequently occurs. B. Firms close amounts in other comprehensive income for a period to Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income at the end of the period.C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

167. Both U.S. GAAP and IFRS often refer to ownership of a(n) _____ of the voting stock of another entity as indicating control, unless evidence indicates that the owner cannot exercise control. A. direct investmentB. indirect investmentC. majorityD. minorityE. effective control

 

168. Which of the following is not true? A. Comprehensive income equals the net amount of revenues, expenses, gains, and losses during an accounting period. B. Authoritative guidance classifies revenues and expenses arising from a firm’s core business as components of net income. C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

169. The FASB and the IASB are reconsidering the role of uncertainty, or probability, in the definition, recognition, and measurement of liabilities. Existing recognition criteria include a probable future sacrifice of resources; one issue involves the minimum probability level to warrant recognition of an uncertain obligation as a liability. U.S. GAAP does not specify a minimum probability level, although the rule-of-thumb in practice is approximately _____ percent.  A. 50B. 60C. 70D. 80E. 90

 

170. Which of the following is not true? A. Acquisition cost for a merchandising firm includes the costs incurred to purchase and transport the inventory prior to sale. B. Acquisition cost for a manufacturing firm includes the direct material, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead cost to produce the inventory. C. If the market values of inventory items decline below acquisition cost prior to sale, firms must reduce their balance sheet carrying values using the lower of cost or market method.D. U.S. GAAP uses a combination of replacement cost and net realizable values to measure market value. E. U.S. GAAP and IFRS permits firms to remeasure inventories upward when market value exceeds acquisition cost.

 

 

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July 1, 2023
    

 

 

161. U.S. GAAP and IFRS require firms to recognize as assets identifiable intangibles acquired in external market transactions.  Which of the following is/are true? A. The exchange between an independent buyer and seller provides evidence of the existence of expected future benefits, and the exchange price provides evidence of the fair value of those benefits. B. In external market transactions, identifiable intangibles include patents, trademarks, customer lists, and other economic resources ready for use, as well as in-process technologies with uncertain future benefits. C. In external market transactions, identifiable intangible assets have either finite lives or indefinite lives.D. In external market transactions, firms must amortize intangible assets with finite lives, generally using the straight-line method. E. all of the above

 

162. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is/are not true? A. U.S. GAAP provides fourteen criteria, any one of which qualifies a lease as a capital lease. B. IFRS provides general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk.C. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases. D. The FASB and the IASB have undertaken a joint project involving the lessee’s accounting for leases which may result in treating all leases as capital leases.E. all of the above

 

163. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is not true? A. The criteria attempt to identify the entity, whether lessor or lessee, that enjoys the benefits and incurs the risk of the leased asset. B. When the lessor enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease.C. When the lessee enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease. D. IFRS provides more general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk. E. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases.

 

164. U.S. GAAP and IFRS account for notes and nonconvertible bonds payable similarly.Which of the following is/are not true? A. Firms initially record long-term notes and bonds at their issue price, the present value of the future contractual cash flows discounted at the market interest rate for the bonds at the time of issue. B. The market interest rate at the time of issue is the rate that discounts the contractual cash flows to the initial issue price.C. If the market interest rate equals the coupon rate for the bonds, the firm will issue the bonds for face value.D. If the market interest rate exceeds the coupon rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value. E. If the coupon rate exceeds the market interest rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value.

 

165. IFRS _____ firms to remeasure property, plant, and equipment upward for increases in fair value under certain conditions. U.S. GAAP _____ such upward remeasurements.  A. permits; permits B. permits; does not permit C. does not permit: does not permit D. does not permit: permits E. none of the above

 

166. Which of the following is not true? A. Firms reclassify gains and losses initially classified in other comprehensive income into net income when a confirming event subsequently occurs. B. Firms close amounts in other comprehensive income for a period to Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income at the end of the period.C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

167. Both U.S. GAAP and IFRS often refer to ownership of a(n) _____ of the voting stock of another entity as indicating control, unless evidence indicates that the owner cannot exercise control. A. direct investmentB. indirect investmentC. majorityD. minorityE. effective control

 

168. Which of the following is not true? A. Comprehensive income equals the net amount of revenues, expenses, gains, and losses during an accounting period. B. Authoritative guidance classifies revenues and expenses arising from a firm’s core business as components of net income. C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

169. The FASB and the IASB are reconsidering the role of uncertainty, or probability, in the definition, recognition, and measurement of liabilities. Existing recognition criteria include a probable future sacrifice of resources; one issue involves the minimum probability level to warrant recognition of an uncertain obligation as a liability. U.S. GAAP does not specify a minimum probability level, although the rule-of-thumb in practice is approximately _____ percent.  A. 50B. 60C. 70D. 80E. 90

 

170. Which of the following is not true? A. Acquisition cost for a merchandising firm includes the costs incurred to purchase and transport the inventory prior to sale. B. Acquisition cost for a manufacturing firm includes the direct material, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead cost to produce the inventory. C. If the market values of inventory items decline below acquisition cost prior to sale, firms must reduce their balance sheet carrying values using the lower of cost or market method.D. U.S. GAAP uses a combination of replacement cost and net realizable values to measure market value. E. U.S. GAAP and IFRS permits firms to remeasure inventories upward when market value exceeds acquisition cost.

 

 

default image
July 1, 2023
    

 

 

161. U.S. GAAP and IFRS require firms to recognize as assets identifiable intangibles acquired in external market transactions.  Which of the following is/are true? A. The exchange between an independent buyer and seller provides evidence of the existence of expected future benefits, and the exchange price provides evidence of the fair value of those benefits. B. In external market transactions, identifiable intangibles include patents, trademarks, customer lists, and other economic resources ready for use, as well as in-process technologies with uncertain future benefits. C. In external market transactions, identifiable intangible assets have either finite lives or indefinite lives.D. In external market transactions, firms must amortize intangible assets with finite lives, generally using the straight-line method. E. all of the above

 

162. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is/are not true? A. U.S. GAAP provides fourteen criteria, any one of which qualifies a lease as a capital lease. B. IFRS provides general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk.C. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases. D. The FASB and the IASB have undertaken a joint project involving the lessee’s accounting for leases which may result in treating all leases as capital leases.E. all of the above

 

163. U.S. GAAP and IFRS provide criteria for distinguishing operating leases from capital leases. Which of the following is not true? A. The criteria attempt to identify the entity, whether lessor or lessee, that enjoys the benefits and incurs the risk of the leased asset. B. When the lessor enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease.C. When the lessee enjoys the benefits and bears the risk, the lease is a capital lease. D. IFRS provides more general criteria for identifying the entity enjoying the rewards and incurring the risk. E. Firms cannot currently apply the fair value option to capital leases.

 

164. U.S. GAAP and IFRS account for notes and nonconvertible bonds payable similarly.Which of the following is/are not true? A. Firms initially record long-term notes and bonds at their issue price, the present value of the future contractual cash flows discounted at the market interest rate for the bonds at the time of issue. B. The market interest rate at the time of issue is the rate that discounts the contractual cash flows to the initial issue price.C. If the market interest rate equals the coupon rate for the bonds, the firm will issue the bonds for face value.D. If the market interest rate exceeds the coupon rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value. E. If the coupon rate exceeds the market interest rate, the firm will issue the bonds for more than face value.

 

165. IFRS _____ firms to remeasure property, plant, and equipment upward for increases in fair value under certain conditions. U.S. GAAP _____ such upward remeasurements.  A. permits; permits B. permits; does not permit C. does not permit: does not permit D. does not permit: permits E. none of the above

 

166. Which of the following is not true? A. Firms reclassify gains and losses initially classified in other comprehensive income into net income when a confirming event subsequently occurs. B. Firms close amounts in other comprehensive income for a period to Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income at the end of the period.C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

167. Both U.S. GAAP and IFRS often refer to ownership of a(n) _____ of the voting stock of another entity as indicating control, unless evidence indicates that the owner cannot exercise control. A. direct investmentB. indirect investmentC. majorityD. minorityE. effective control

 

168. Which of the following is not true? A. Comprehensive income equals the net amount of revenues, expenses, gains, and losses during an accounting period. B. Authoritative guidance classifies revenues and expenses arising from a firm’s core business as components of net income. C. Net income includes gains and losses from sales or exchanges of assets or settlements of liabilities related incidentally or peripherally to the firm’s core business. D. Authoritative guidance classifies gains and losses from the remeasurement of certain assets and liabilities as either net income or other comprehensive income. E. The FASB’s and IASB’s conceptual framework contains a conceptual model for classifying items in net income versus in other comprehensive income.

 

169. The FASB and the IASB are reconsidering the role of uncertainty, or probability, in the definition, recognition, and measurement of liabilities. Existing recognition criteria include a probable future sacrifice of resources; one issue involves the minimum probability level to warrant recognition of an uncertain obligation as a liability. U.S. GAAP does not specify a minimum probability level, although the rule-of-thumb in practice is approximately _____ percent.  A. 50B. 60C. 70D. 80E. 90

 

170. Which of the following is not true? A. Acquisition cost for a merchandising firm includes the costs incurred to purchase and transport the inventory prior to sale. B. Acquisition cost for a manufacturing firm includes the direct material, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead cost to produce the inventory. C. If the market values of inventory items decline below acquisition cost prior to sale, firms must reduce their balance sheet carrying values using the lower of cost or market method.D. U.S. GAAP uses a combination of replacement cost and net realizable values to measure market value. E. U.S. GAAP and IFRS permits firms to remeasure inventories upward when market value exceeds acquisition cost.

 

 

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