Question : 51) At STP, what the volume of 1.00 mole of : 1324858

Economics

51) At STP, what is the volume of 1.00 mole of carbon dioxide?

A) 1.00 L

B) 44.0 L

C) 273 L

D) 22.4 L

E) 12.2 L

52) 4Na(s) + O2(g ) → 2Na2O(s)

How many L of O2 gas at STP, are needed to react with 15.0 g of Na?

A) 3.65 L

B) 14.6 L

C) 7.30 L

D) 22.4 L

E) 32.0 L

53) As the reaction of carbon with oxygen to produce carbon monoxide proceeds in a sealed container at a constant temperature of 600 K, the pressure in the container will __________.

2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g)

A) increase

B) decrease

C) remain constant

D) depend on whether a catalyst is present

54) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → H2(g) + ZnCl2(aq)

When 25.0 g of Zn reacts, how many L of H2 gas are formed at STP?

A) 4.28 L

B) 0.0171 L

C) 8.56 L

D) 22.4 L

E) 0.382 L

55) Zn(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → H2(g) + ZnCl2(aq)

When 25.0 g of Zn reacts, how many L of H2 gas are formed at 25 °C and a pressure of 854 mmHg?

A) 8.56 L

B) 0.120 L

C) 8.32 L

D) 22.4 L

E) 0.382 L

56) The mathematical expression of the ideal gas law is

A) P1V1 = P2V2

B) =

C) =

D) PV = nRT

E) PT = P1 + P2 + P3

57) What volume would a 0.250 mole sample of H2 gas occupy, if it had a which has a pressure of 1.70 atm, and a temperature of 35 °C?

A) 0.269 L

B) 0.423 L

C) 1.25 L

D) 3.72 L

E) 283 L

58) What is the mass of a sample of O2 gas, which has a pressure of 740. mmHg, at a temperature of 25 °C, in a volume of 250. mL?

A) 0.318 g

B) 3.82 g

C) 201 g

D) 292 g

E) 320. g

59) The total pressure in a mixture of gases is equal to the partial pressure(s) of

A) the gas with the greatest number of moles.

B) the gas with the smallest number of moles.

C) the gas with the highest molecular weight.

D) the gas that occupies the largest volume.

E) all the gases added together.

60) A cyclopropane-oxygen mixture is used as an anesthetic. If the partial pressure of cyclopropane in the mixture is 330 mmHg and the partial pressure of the oxygen is 1.0 atm, what is the total pressure of the mixture in torr?

A) 330 torr

B) 430 torr

C) 760 torr

D) 1.4 torr

E) 1100 torr

61) A tank contains helium gas at 490 mmHg, nitrogen gas at 0.75 atm, and neon at 520 torr. What is the total pressure in atm?

A) 2.1 atm

B) 0.55 atm

C) 1.0 × 103 atm

D) 1.5 atm

E) 1600 atm

62) A tank contains a mixture of helium, neon, and argon gases. If the total pressure in the tank is 490. mmHg and the partial pressures of helium and argon are 215 mmHg and 102 mmHg, respectively, what is the partial pressure of neon?

A) 0.228 mmHg

B) 603 mmHg

C) 377 mmHg

D) 807 mmHg

E) 173 mmHg

63) Which of the following correctly describes the partial pressures of gases in the body?

A) high O2, low CO2, oxygenated blood

B) high O2, low CO2, deoxygenated blood

C) high O2, high CO2, oxygenated blood

D) high O2, high CO2, tissue

E) low O2, low CO2, deoxygenated blood

64) Which of the following is NOT a potential use for a hyperbaric chamber?

A) treatment for burns and infections

B) counteracting carbon monoxide poisoning

C) increasing the rate at which a broken bone heals

D) treating a diver with the bends

E) treating some cancers

65) If atmospheric pressure on a certain day is 749 mmHg, what is the partial pressure of nitrogen, given that nitrogen is about 78% of the atmosphere?

A) 165 mm Hg

B) 584 mm Hg

C) 600 mm Hg

D) 749 mm Hg

E) 760 mm Hg

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July 1, 2023

41) The above figure shows the production possibility frontier for an economy. The point or points that are attainable and production efficient are

A) points B and C.

B) points A, B, and C.

C) point E.

D) points A, B, C, and D.

E) points A and D.

42) The above figure shows the production possibility frontier for an economy. The point or points that are attainable are

A) points B and C.

B) points A, B, and C.

C) point E.

D) points A, B, C, and D.

E) points A and D.

43) The above figure shows the production possibility frontier for an economy. The point or points that are NOT attainable are

A) points B and C.

B) points A, B, and C.

C) point E.

D) points A, B, C, and D.

E) points A and D.

44) In order for Ireland to grow more potatoes, wool production must decrease. This situation is an example of

A) producing at a point that lies beyond the PPF.

B) zero opportunity cost.

C) opportunity benefit.

D) a free lunch.

E) a tradeoff.

45) As we move along the production possibilities frontier,

A) the production of one good increases as the production of the other good decreases.

B) the possibilities of tradeoffs diminish.

C) a tradeoff is not possible because nations need all goods.

D) more of both goods can be produced.

E) less of both goods can be produced.

46) Which of the following statements is correct?

A) If capital is idle, the economy is producing at its full potential.

B) The production possibilities frontier shows that there are no limits to production.

C) A tradeoff is a limit that forces an exchange or a substitution of one thing for something else.

D) Any point on or within the PPF is production efficient.

E) None of the above answers is correct.

47) When a nation is producing on its production possibilities frontier, if more resources are used to produce one good, then the production of other goods

A) must increase.

B) must decrease.

C) must remain the same.

D) must change, but they might increase or decrease.

E) might increase if the nation can produce more efficiently.

48) The negative slope of the production possibilities frontier represents the idea

A) that free lunches are possible.

B) of tradeoffs, that in order to produce more of one good, the nation must produce less of another.

C) of unemployment.

D) of inefficient production.

E) that prices rise as less is produced.

49) A movement from one point on a production possibilities frontier to another represents

A) a tradeoff.

B) a free lunch.

C) full employment of labor but not capital.

D) unemployment.

E) an advance in technology.

50) The saying "There's no such thing as a free lunch," applies

A) when there is some unemployment.

B) on the production possibilities frontier.

C) to unattainable combinations of goods and services.

D) when more of one good can be produced without decreasing production of another.

E) at all points inside the PPF.

July 1, 2023

31) Steve, an HR supervisor at APEX construction, has recently noticed a shortage of skilled workers due to a building boom in the area. He must find new workers quickly because it is uncertain how long the boom will last. He decides to hire nontraditional laborers. The most likely disadvantage of using nontraditional laborers is the:

A) high costs of making reasonable accommodations.

B) additional training that will be necessary.

C) extensive involvement of the EEOC.

D) high advertising costs.

32) Which of the following is primarily associated with hiring external candidates?

A) Lowers training costs

B) Provides new ideas and perspectives

C) Decreases recruitment time and expense

D) Motivates other workers to strive for advancement

33) One of the advantages of promoting internal candidates is:

A) rejuvenating work units.

B) reducing training costs.

C) fostering innovative ideas.

D) reducing employee turnover.

34) Tatiana needs to hire a line manager and has a very small recruiting budget. The firm's current employees don't feel they have many advancement opportunities. It would be best for Tatiana to recruit:

A) internally.

B) externally.

C) former military members.

D) nontraditional workers.

35) Which of the following is most likely a true statement about recruiting?

A) Internal recruiting enhances organizational communication.

B) External recruiting fills positions quickly and inexpensively.

C) External recruiting promotes innovation and new perspectives.

D) Internal recruiting requires developing new organizational policies.

36) Which of the following is most likely a true statement about recruiting employees in a protected class?

A) The recruiting message should be targeted to specific minority groups.

B) All private sector firms are legally required to have an affirmative action policy.

C) Using media that focuses on minorities is an effective way to recruit protected group members.

D) Intense minority competition for jobs ensures a large pool of qualified and motivated applicants.

37) Which of the following must have written affirmative action plans?

A) Non-profit groups

B) Government contractors

C) Privately-held corporations

D) Publicly-held corporations

38) In human resource planning the answer to the question, "How many candidates should we recruit?":

A) is based on the firm's affirmative action plan.

B) comes from the yield ratio calculated in the forecast.

C) is directed by EEO consideration and the size of the labor pool.

D) depends on the state of the labor pool and the current economy.

39) The offer-to-acceptance ratio at Central Manufacturing is 6:1. How many offers will the firm need to make in order to fill 80 positions?

A) 120

B) 240

C) 480

D) 540

40) After an extensive recruiting effort, your company has contacted 225 interested individuals. At the application deadline, you have received 75 applications. What is your contact-to-applicant ratio?