Order Now
External link to Question : 61. A common-size income statement expresses each expense and net income : 1230558
Accounting

Question : 61. A common-size income statement expresses each expense and net income : 1230558

    61. A common-size income statement expresses each expense and net income as a percentage of   A. assets B. revenues C. liabilities D. expenses E. shareholders’ equity   62. Which of the following is not true?  A. Net income or profit for a period is the difference between revenues from selling goods and services and the expenses incurred to generate those revenues, plus some gains or losses of the period. B. If […]

External link to Question : 61. A business received an offer from an exporter for 10,000 : 1233928
Accounting

Question : 61. A business received an offer from an exporter for 10,000 : 1233928

  61. A business received an offer from an exporter for 10,000 units of product at $16 per unit. The acceptance of the offer will not affect normal production or domestic sales prices. The following data are available:  Domestic unit sales price $20 Unit manufacturing costs:     Variable 13   Fixed 1     What is the amount of gain or loss from acceptance of […]

External link to Question : 51) Process-costing FIFO usually applied to both the units entering : 1217019
Accounting

Question : 51) Process-costing FIFO usually applied to both the units entering : 1217019

  51) Process-costing FIFO is usually applied to both the units entering a department and the units leaving a department. 52) The weighted average method of process costing assigns the cost of equivalent units worked on during the current period first to complete beginning inventory, next to start and complete new units, and finally to units in ending work-in-process inventory.   53) A major advantage […]

External link to Question : 61.The _____ compares the race, sex, and ethnic composition of : 1243197
Accounting

Question : 61.The _____ compares the race, sex, and ethnic composition of : 1243197

    61.The _____ compares the race, sex, and ethnic composition of an employer’s workforce with that of the available labor supply.    A.contingency analysis   B.matrix analysis   C.path goal analysis   D.differential analysis   E.utilization analysis     62.Goals and timetables in an affirmative action plan:    A.compare the race, sex, and ethnic composition of an employer’s workforce with that of the available labor supply. […]

External link to Question : 171. The verification that the total dollar amount of the debits : 1233825
Accounting

Question : 171. The verification that the total dollar amount of the debits : 1233825

  171. The verification that the total dollar amount of the debits equals the total dollar amount of the credits in the ledger is called a A. ledgerB. trial balanceC. accountD. balance sheet 172. The process of transferring the journal entries to the accounts is known as A. postingB. updatingC. journalizingD. summarizing 173. The posting process will include the transfer of the following information from the journal to the account. A. date, amount (debit or credit)B. date, amount (debit or credit), […]

External link to Question : Multiple Choice Questions 23.Which of the following statements not correct? A. The use : 1168986
Accounting

Question : Multiple Choice Questions 23.Which of the following statements not correct? A. The use : 1168986

  Multiple Choice Questions  23.Which of the following statements is not correct?    A. The use of the direct charge-off method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts usually results in the balance in the Accounts Receivable account being overstated.   B. The direct charge-off method of recording losses from uncollectible accounts is the method required by Federal income tax laws.   C. The direct charge-off method of recording losses […]

External link to Question : 120.A company has the following per unit original costs and : 1236934
Accounting

Question : 120.A company has the following per unit original costs and : 1236934

  120.A company has the following per unit original costs and replacement costs for its inventory. LCM is applied to individual items.Part A: 50 units with a cost of $5, and replacement cost of $4.50Part B: 75 units with a cost of $6, and replacement cost of $6.50Part C: 160 units with a cost of $3, and replacement cost of $2.50Under the lower of cost […]

External link to Question : 51. Which of the following not true about goodwill? A. Goodwill reflects the : 1230693
Accounting

Question : 51. Which of the following not true about goodwill? A. Goodwill reflects the : 1230693

    51. Which of the following is not true about goodwill?  A. Goodwill reflects the value of knowledgeable employees. B. Goodwill reflects the value of a reputation for quality products. C. Under U.S. GAAP, goodwill has an indefinite life, and firms do not amortize the amount recognized as goodwill. D. Firms must test goodwill annually for a loss in value. E. Under IFRS, goodwill has an indefinite life, and firms […]

External link to Question : 11) Financial accounting provides budgeting information to a company’s managers. 12) : 1230027
Accounting

Question : 11) Financial accounting provides budgeting information to a company’s managers. 12) : 1230027

  11) Financial accounting provides budgeting information to a company’s managers.   12) A partnership is formed under state law. 13) Accounting: A) measures business activities. B) processes data into reports and communicates the data to decision makers. C) is often called the language of business. D) is all of the above.   14) The two types of accounting are: A) profit and nonprofit. B) […]

External link to Question : 51. Phipps Company borrowed $25,000 cash October 1, 2010, and signed : 1228552
Accounting

Question : 51. Phipps Company borrowed $25,000 cash October 1, 2010, and signed : 1228552

  51. Phipps Company borrowed $25,000 cash on October 1, 2010, and signed a six-month, 8% interest-bearing note payable with interest payable at maturity. Assuming that no adjusting entries have been made during the year, the amount of accrued interest payable to be reported on the December 31, 2010 balance sheet is which of the following?  A. $250 B. $300 C. $500 D. $750 52. Phipps Company borrowed $25,000 cash on […]

Place your order
(550 words)

Approximate price: $22

July 1, 2023
    

90 exam questions 

BUS 599: Strategic Management Exam

Question 1
 

Which of the following IS NOT an argument in favor of corporate social responsibility?
 

(a) Imposes unequal costs among competitors.
 

(b) Responds to changing stakeholders’ demands.
 

(c) Corrects social problems caused by business.
 

(d) Discourages government regulation.
 

Question 2
 

The ethical roots of the classical model of corporate social responsibility are found in which statement?
 

(a) The idea that the interests of stakeholders are as important as the interests of a corporation’s stockholders.
 

(b) The free market theory which holds that managers are ethically obliged to make as much money as possible for their.
 

(c) The ethical imperative to cause no harm.
 

(d) The ethical imperative to prevent harm. 
 

Question 4
 

Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the concept of a right?
 

(a) Rights protect a person’s wants.
 

(b) There is really no distinction between a person’s wants and interests. Rights protect both.
 

(c) Rights protect a person’s interests.
 

(d) My rights never correspond to your duties and your duties never correspond to my rights.

Question 5
 

Human rights are:
 

(a) The standards of treatment to which all people are entitled.
 

(b)  Can safely be ignored by international companies.
 

(c) Defined in the united Nations Global Compact.
 

(d) Of no interest to customers of international companies.
 

Question 6
 

Which statement characterizes the moral reasoning typically found in a child?
 

(a) When in ROME, do as the Romans do.  
 

(b) I’II scratch your back, if you’II scratch mine.
 

(c) Seek the greatest good for the greatest number.
 

(d) Respect the rights of others.

Question 7
 

The Iron Law of Responsibility says that:

(a) In the long run, those who do not use power responsibly will lose it.
 

(b) In the short run, sacrifice social goals for economic goals.
 

(c) Law is most important, more than social or economic responsibility.
 

(d) In the long run, economic responsibility leads to social responsibility.
 

Question 8
 

External rewards and internal rewards relate to which part of the ethical decision-making framework?
 

(a) Individual factors
 

(b) Significant others
 

(c) Cognitive moral development
 

(d) Intentions
 

(e) Opportunity
 

Question 10
 

Which one of the following statements about multinational corporations is FALSE?
 

(a) MNCs are corporate organizations that operate on a global scale without significant ties to any one nation or region.
 

(b) MNCs are inherently unethical.
 

(c) MNCs are cauterized by a global strategy of focusing on opportunities throughout the world.
 

(d) Some MNCs are so large and powerful that their revenues are greater than the gross domestic products of some countries.
 

 (e) Because of their size and power, MNCs have been the subject of much  ethical criticism and the source of a number of ethical issues.
 

Question 11
 

The most intense rivalry results from:
 

(a) Numerous equally balanced competitors, slow industry growth, and high fixed or storage costs.  
 

(b) Few competitors, slow industry growth, lack of differentiation, and high fixed or storage costs.
 

(c) Numerous equally balanced competitors, manufacturing capacity increasing only in large increments, and low exit barriers.
 

(d) A high level of differentiation.

 

Question 12

A  crash R&D program by one firm cannot replicate a successful  technology developed by another firm when research findings cumulate.
 

(a) Social complexity.
 

(b) Path dependency.
 

(c) Physical uniqueness.
 

(d) Causal ambiguity

Question 13
 

 Emotional intelligence, as proposed by Daniel Goleman, is manifest in  self-awareness, self-regulation, social skills, empathy, and: 
 

(a) Ambition
 

(b) Motivation
 

(c) Sympathy.
 

(d) Open mindedness

Question 14

Which of the following is not characteristic of well-constructed goals?

(a) They are precise and measurable.
 

(b) They are the result of a group decision process.
 

(c) They specify a time period.
 

(d) They are challenging but realistic.
 

(e) They address critical issues.

Question 15

There are several perspectives of competition. One perspective is zero-sum thinking. Zero-sum thinking means that:

(a) All parts of the organizations gain at no loss.
 

(b) In order for someone to gain, others must experience no gain or benefit.
 

(c) One can only gain at the expense of someone else.
 

(d) Everyone in the organization shares gains and losses equally.
 

Question 16
 

Kaizen means:
 

(a) radical innovation.
 

(b) Incremental innovation.
 

(c) Open innovation.
 

(d) Continuous improvement.
 

Question 17
 

Costs associated with efforts to prevent errors are:
 

(a) Appraisal costs.
 

(b) Direct costs.
 

(c) Prevention costs.
 

(d) Expected costs.
 

Question 18
 

Emerging sociocultrual changes in the environment include:
 

(a) Changes in the ethnic composition.
 

(b) The increasing educational attainment of women in the past decade.
 

(c) Progressively less disposable income by consumers.
 

(d) Changes in the geographic distribution of the population.

Question 19

In  value chain analysis, the activities of organizations are divided into  two major categories of value activities: primary and support. Which of  the following is a primary activity?

(a) Purchasing key inputs.
 

(b) Recruiting and training employees.
 

(c)   Repairing the product for the consumer.
 

(d) Monitoring the cost of producing the product through a cost accounting system.
 

Question 20
 

The balanced scorecard enables managers to consider their business from all of the following perspectives except:
 

(a) Customer perspective.
 

(b) Internal perspective.
 

(c) Innovation and leering perspective.
 

(d) Ethical perspective.
 

Question 21
 

 Imagine your boss wants you to investigate ways your company might be  able enhance customer satisfaction, create an attractive loyalty  program, and reward your customers. Most likely, your company’s  immediate goal is to:
 

(a) Delight customers.
 

(b) Make more money.
 

(c) Enhance product offerings.
 

(d) Redefine its position.
 

Question 22
 

 Giant Grocery Retailer tells Small Cereal Manufacturer that it will not  stock or sell Small Cereal Manufacture’s product line until and unless a  better trade margin is provided. What type of power is Giant Grocery  Retailer exhibiting?
 

(a) Purchasing power.
 

(b) Information power.
 

(c)  Coercive power.
 

(d) Distribution power.

 

Question 23

Company  ABC is interested in better understanding how different groups of  customers feel about its product. In order to this, company ABC will  need to :

(a) Position its product in the market.
 

(b) Segment the market.
 

(c) Mass market.
 

(d) Target market.
 

Question -24
 

 The terms manufacturer , service provider ,government agency, and  wholesaler are  designations used to segment business and organization  markets according to:
 

(a) The type of customer.
 

(b) Demographics.
 

(c) Product use.
 

(d) Buying situations.

  Question-25
 

Which of the following is defined to be an exchange between a firm and its customers?
 

(a) Advertising.
 

(b) Consumer behavior.
 

(c) Marketing.
 

(d) Distribution.
 

Questions:-26
 

Which is an approach for creating a perceptual map?
 

(a) Attribute based.
 

(b) Demography based.
 

(c) Focus group based.
 

(d) Survey based.

Question-27
 

Marketing information should be gathered _________ so the can be in the know and poised for action.
 

(a) Quarterly
 

(b) Annually
 

(c) Constantly
 

(d) Every two years
 

Question-28
 

There are two major class of franchising. One is business format franchising. What is the other one?
 

(a) Market franchising.
 

(b) Product franchising.
 

(c) In- house franchising.
 

(d) Multisite franchising.

Questin-29
 

Which of the following is not part of Michael porter’s five forces model?
 

(a) Industry competitors.
 

(b) Threat of competition imitation strategies.
 

(c) Threat of new entrants.
 

(d) Bargaining power of buyer and suppliers.
 

Question-30
 

In order for an exchange to occur (marketing):
 

(a) A complex societal system must be involved.
 

(b) Organized marketing activities must also accur.
 

(c) A profit-oriented organization must be involved.
 

(d) Each party must have something of value to the other party.
 

Question-31
 

At a price above the equilibrium price, there is ______.
 

(a) A shortage
 

(b) A surplus
 

(c) Excess demand
 

(d) Super –equilibrium
 

(e) None of the above
 

Question-32
 

 At a price for which quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied ,a  __________ is experienced , which pushes the price______ toward its  equilibrium value.
 

(a) Surplus; downward
 

(b) Surplus: upward
 

(c) Shortage: downward
 

(d) Shortage: upward
 

Question-33
 

The minimum wage is an example of a ___________.
 

(a) Price door
 

(b) Price wall
 

(c) Price floor
 

(d) Price ceiling
 

Question-34
 

The supply of product X is perfectly inelastic if the price of X rises by _________.
 

(a) 5 percent and quantity supplied rises by 7 percent
 

(b) 8 percent and quantity supplied rises by 8 percent
 

(c) 7 percent and quantity supplied rises by 5 percent
 

(d) 10 percent and quantity supplied remains the same
 

Question-35
 

If the purchase and sale of a currently illegal drug such as marijuana were decriminalized , we would expect _______.
 

(a) An increase in demand and supply of this drug
 

(b) An increase in demand and a decrease in supply of this drug
 

(c) A decrease in demand and an increase in supply of this drug
 

(d) A decrease in demand and supply of this drug
 

Question-36
 

 John just bought shares of stock in IBM for  $10,000 and paid a $90  commission to his broker . How did this affect GDP (Gross domestic  Product)?
 

(a) It had no impact on GDP.
 

(b) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $90
 

(c) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $10,000
 

(d) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $9,990
 

(e) GDP (Gross Domestic Product ) increased by $10,0903
 

Question-37
 

Which one of the following will cause a movement down along an economy’s consumption schedule?
 

(a)An increase in stock prices.
 

(b) A decrease in stock prices.
 

(c) An increase in consumer indebtedness.
 

(d) A decrease in disposable income.

Question-38
 

The largest component of national income is __________.
 

(a) Rental income
 

(b) Proprietor’s income
 

(c) Compensation of employees
 

(d) Corporate profits
 

(e) Net interest
 

Question-39
 

According to the theory of efficiency wages:
 

(a) The most profitable firms keep wages low.
 

(b) Above –equilibrium wages are paid by the firm to increase worker productivity.
 

(c) Some occupations are predominantly male and some are predominantly female.
 

(d) Differences in human capital explain why firms pay high wages.

Question-40
 

If the CPI (Consumer Price  Index ) is 170 and nominal income is $ 75,000, approximately what does real income equal?
 

(a) $127,500
 

(b) $74,825
 

(c) $75,175
 

(d) $44,118
 

Question-41
 

 Dexter Hemingway is the CEO and Todd Bradley is the CFO of Maxwell Inc.  Unknowingly, both signed the financial report for the financial year  2006/07, Which was misleading. Can they be held liable for punishment?
 

(a) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, both of them must reimburse the company.
 

(b) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, only the CEO will be liable for punishment.
 

(c) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO) ,both of them are required to reimburse the company.
 

(d) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO),only the CFO will be liable for punishment.

 

Question 42

A______ is a public offer to all the shareholders of a corporation to buy their shares at a stated price.

(a) Leveraged buy out
 

(b) Tender offer
 

(c) Target bid
 

(d) Merger

Question 43

If  incorporators cannot show substantial compliance with statutes  regarding incorporation but can show that they were unaware of any  defect and acted in good faith, a court may trat the entity as  a(n)___________.

(a) De jure corporation
 

(b)  Real corporation
 

(c) De facto corporation
 

(d)   Equitable corporation

Question 44
 

 IF Tosca’s negligence causes Scarpia, who has an especially weak heart,  to die of a heart attack, Scarpia,s surviving spouse_______.
 

 (a) Will not be able to recover against TOSCA because Scarpia assumed  the risk of harm when he allowed himself to interact with Tosca, knowing  all the while that he had an especially weak heart.
 

(b) Will not be able to recover against Tosca if her negligence would not have caused a heart attack in normal person
 

(c) Will only be able to recover against Tosca if her behavior was reckless, not merely negligent
 

(d)   Will generally be able to recover against Tosca.

Question 45
 

Today, you might be buying from a regulated natural monopoly when you purchase:
 

(a) A house, a condominium, or a plot of land.
 

(b) Natural gas or electricity.
 

(c) A computer, a phone, or a camera.
 

(d) A car, a truck, or a bicycle.
 

Question 46

Under the Equal protection clause,______.
 

(a) The government must treat like cases alike.
 

(b) States are prohibited from arbitrarily discriminating against persons.
 

(c) States are prohibited from discriminating only on the basis of nationality.
 

(d) The government can uphold restrictions on property.
 

Question 47
 

A person who shares in the profits of the business but NOT in its_______ is not a partner.
 

(a) Management
 

(b) Losses
 

(c) control
 

(d) voting

Question 48
 

Under rational basis analysis,_________.
 

 (a) A government action will be upheld as long as it has a reasonable  relationship to the achievement of a legitimate purpose, even if those  provisions are foolish.
 

(b)    Discrimination on the basis of a suspect category will received highest scrutiny
 

(c) Courts will deem a government action unconditional when the action impinges on a fundamental right.
 

(d) Discrimination on the basis of economic interest will receive highest scrutiny.

 

Question 49
 

 ______ is a process used mainly in the area of public international law  whereby a third party, often a disinterested government, brings the  parties together by establishing communication and providing a site  where the parties can meet, often in secret.
 

(a) Public involvement.
 

(b) Good offices
 

(c) Local involvement
 

(d) Best transitions.
 

Question 50
 

________ law legal systems primarily rely on case law and precedents.
 

(a) Common
 

(b) Civil
 

(c) Statutory
 

(d) Codified
 

Question 51
 

A firm changes from Last I n First Out to First In First Out; this change will be found in the:
 

(a) The balance sheet.
 

(b) The income statement.
 

(c) The statement of cash flows.
 

(d) Notes to the financial statements.

Question 52

Financial leverage impacts the performance of the firm by:

(a) Increasing the volatility of the firm’s earnings before interest & taxes.
 

(b) Decreasing the volatility of the firm’s earnings before interest & taxes.
 

(c)  Decreasing the volatility of the firm’s net income.
 

(d) Increasing the volatility of the firm’s net income.

Question 53
 

In the financial planning model, external funds needed (EFN) is equal to changes in;
 

(a) Assets-(liabilities-equity).
 

(b) Assets-(liabilities + equity).
 

(c) (Assets+ liabilities-equity).
 

(d)  (Assets + equity-liabilities).

 

Question 54

Use  the following information and horizontal analysis to compute the  percentage increase in sales: Year X sales  were $200,000 and year (X+1)  sales were $250,000.

(a) Sales increased by 80%.
 

(b) Sales increased by 25%
 

(c) Sales increased by 20%
 

(d) Sales increased by 125%
 

Question 55
 

 The counting house Inc., purchased a 5-year property class equipment  for $60,000. The firm uses the MACRS method of depreciation. What is tax  depreciation for the second year of the asset’s life”?
 

(a) 12000
 

(b) 19200
 

(c) 20000
 

(d) 24000
 

Question 56
 

Which one of the following would not be counted as part of incremental cash flow?
 

(a) Opportunity cost.
 

(b) Sunk cost.
 

(c) External cost such as brand cannibalism.
 

(d) External benefit such as acquisition of new technology which can be applied to other projects.
 

Question 57

The financial ratio days’ sales in receivables is measured as:

(a) Receivables turnover plus 365 days.
 

(b) Accounts receivable times 365 days.
 

(c) Accounts receivable plus sales, divided by 365 days.
 

(d) 365 days divided by the receivables turnover. 
 

Question 58

The  firm’s _______ are primarily interested in ratios that measure the  short-term liquidity of the company and its ability to make principal  and interest payments.
 

(a) Board of directors
 

(b) Creditors
 

(c) Owners
 

(d) Financial managers
 

(e) Customers
 

Question 59
 

Which one of the following would not be counted after the end of a project?
 

(a) Scarp value.
 

(b) Continuation value.
 

(c) Release of working capital.
 

(d) Change in working capital.

Question 60
 

An increase in which one of the following accounts increases a firm’s current ratio without affecting its quick ratio?
 

(a) Accounts payable
 

(b)  Cash
 

(c) Inventory
 

(d) Accounts receivable

 

Question 61

Which structure is usually optimal for project based organizations with fluctuating workloads?

(a) Functional.
 

(b) Divisional
 

(c)  Matrix.
 

(d) Network.
 

Question 62
 

The right to self-determination and freedom from the control of others is called:
 

(a) Beneficence.
 

(b) Justice.
 

(c) Fidelity.
 

(d) Autonomy.

Question 63

An important activity in _______ is taking corrective action.

(a) Strategy formulation
 

(b) Strategy evaluation
 

(c) Strategy manipulation
 

(d) Strategy implementation
 

Question 64

For a culture to exist, it must be all of the following EXCEPT________.
 

(a) Shared by the vast majority of members.
 

(b) Be passed from generation to generation.
 

(c) Shape perceptions, judgments, and feelings.
 

(d) Be distinct from decisions and behaviors.

 

Question 65

Advantages of the place design include all of the following except:

(a) Direct contact with customers in each locale.
 

(b) Managers in each market become generalists.
 

(c) Proximity to suppliers.
 

(d) Proximity to customers.
 

Question 66

A main force pushing toward a network structure is that an organizations has_________ core competencies.
 

(a) Undefined
 

(b) A few
 

(c) Interdependent
 

(d) Independent
 

Question 67
 

A flat organizational structure creates a(n)______ span of control.
 

(a) Tall
 

(b) Narrow
 

(c) Wide
 

(d) Centralized
 

Question 68
 

The term______refers to formal statements specifying acceptable and unacceptable behaviors and decisions by employees.

(a) Strategies
 

(b) Impersonality
 

(c) Tactics
 

(d) Rules

 

Question 69

________  refers to the lack of information regarding what needs to be done in a  role, as well as unpredictability regarding the consequences of  performance in that role.
 

(a) Time pressure
 

(b) Daily hassles
 

(c) Role overload
 

(d) Role ambiguity
 

(e) Role conflict
 

Question 70

The  strategy that is based on an organization’s ability to provide a  product or service at a lower cost than its rivals is referred to  as________.

(a) Discount
 

(b) Differentiation
 

(c)  Focused
 

(d) Low-cost
 

Question 71

Paid-in Capital represents:
 

(a) Earnings retained for use in the business.
 

(b) The amount invested in the entity by the owners.
 

(c) Market value of the entity’s common stock.
 

(d) Net assets of the entity at the date of the statement.
 

Question 72

At  the beginning of the fiscal year, the balance sheet showed assets of  $1,364 and owners equity of $836. During the year, assets increased $ 74  and liabilities decreased $38. Owner’s equity at the end of the year  totaled:

(a) $836
 

(b) $872
 

(c) $948
 

(d) $1438
 

Question 73
 

The number of times interest charges are earned is computed as:
 

(a) Net income plus interest charges, divided by interest charges.
 

(b) Income before income tax plus interest charges, divided by interest charges.
 

(c) Net income divided by interest charges.
 

(d) Income before income tax divided by interest charges.
 

Question 74

The  tendency of the rate earned on stockholders equity to vary  disproportionately from the rate earned on total assets is sometimes  referred to as:
 

(a) Leverage.
 

(b) Solvency.
 

(c) Yield.
 

(d)  Quick assets. 
 

Question 75
 

 Which method of evaluating capital investment proposals uses present  value concepts to compute the rate of return from the net cash flows  expected from capital investment proposals?
 

(a) Internal rate of return
 

(b) Cash Payback
 

(c) Net present value
 

(d) Average rate of return
 

Question 76

Statements in which all items are expressed only in relative terms (percentages of a common bas )are:
 

(a) Horizontal statements.
 

(b) Percentage statements
 

(c) Vertical statements.
 

(d) Common-size statements.

 

Question 77

The reason for recoding a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
 

(a) That the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund. 
 

(b) That the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
 

(c) That the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
 

(d) To avoid recognizing an expense so net income will be higher for the current accounting period.
 

Question 78

Current  generally accepted Accounting Principles and auditing standards require  that financial statements of an entity for the reporting period to  include:

(a) Earnings and gross receipts of cash for the period.
 

(b) Projected earnings for the subsequent period.
 

(c) Financial position at the end of the period.
 

(d) Current market values of all assets at the end of the period.
 

Question 79

Which  of the flowing ratios provides a solvency measure that shows the margin  of safety of note holders or bondholders and also gives an indication  of the potential ability of the business to borrow additional funds on a  long-term basis?
 

(a) Ratio of fixed assets to long-term liabilities.
 

(b) Ratio of net sales to assets
 

(c) Number of days’ sales in receivables
 

(d) Rate earned on stockholders’ equity

Question 80
 

 Sage, Inc has 20 employees who each earn $ 100 per day and are paid  every Friday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday.

(a) $2,000
 

(b) $1,000
 

(c) $0
 

(d) $6,000

Question 81
 

 Testing the probability of a relationship between variables occurring  by chance alone if there really was no difference in the population from  which that sample was drawn is knows as:
 

(a) Multiple regression analysis.
 

(b) Chi-squared test.
 

(c) Correlation coefficient.
 

(d) Significance testing.
 

Question 82
 

A Type II error is defined as ________.
 

(a) Rejecting a true null hypothesis
 

(b) Rejecting a false null hypothesis
 

(c) Not rejecting a true null hypothesis
 

(d)  Not rejecting a false null hypothesis
 

 Question 83
 

The numbers of rooms for 15 homes recently sold were (mean=7.4):8,8,8,5,9,8,7,6,6,7,7,7,7,9, and 9. What is the variance?
 

(a) 1.183
 

(b) 1.4
 

(c)  4
 

(d) 16
 

(e) 1.96
 

Question 84
 

Which of the following is an Excel add-in for simulation?
 

(a) Precision tree
 

(b) TopRank
 

(c) BestFit
 

(d) @Risk
 

(e) Riskview

Question 85
 

ANOVA is:
 

(a) A government body which collects social statistics.
 

(b) A two-way analysis variance.
 

(c) The Name of a statistical software package.
 

(d) A one-way analysis of variance.
 

Question 86
 

Which of the following statements are false?
 

(a) The modeling process discussed in Data analysis & Decision making book is a five-step process.
 

(b) Dealing with uncertainty requires a basis understanding of probability.
 

(c) Uncertainty is a key aspect of most business problems.
 

(d) Data description and data inference are included under data analysis.
 

Question 87

In a criminal trial, a type II error is made when__________.
 

(a) A guilty defendant is acquitted
 

(b) An innocent person is convicted
 

(c) A guilty defendant is convicted
 

(d) An innocent person is acquitted

Question 88

What is the name of the test that is used to assess the relationship two ordinal variables?
 

(a) Spearman’s rho.
 

(b) Phi.
 

(c) Cramer’s V.
 

(d) Chi square.
 

Question 89

Which one of the following would be considered a state of nature for a business firm?

(a) Inventory levels.
 

(b) Salaries for employees.
 

(c)  Site for a new plant.
 

(d) Worker safety laws.
 

Question 90
 

The number of miles a truck is divine before it is overhauled is an examples of a(n)_______variable.
 

(a) Nominative
 

(b) Ordinal
 

(c) Interval
 

(d) Ratio

Answers 0 

default image
July 1, 2023
    

90 exam questions 

BUS 599: Strategic Management Exam

Question 1
 

Which of the following IS NOT an argument in favor of corporate social responsibility?
 

(a) Imposes unequal costs among competitors.
 

(b) Responds to changing stakeholders’ demands.
 

(c) Corrects social problems caused by business.
 

(d) Discourages government regulation.
 

Question 2
 

The ethical roots of the classical model of corporate social responsibility are found in which statement?
 

(a) The idea that the interests of stakeholders are as important as the interests of a corporation’s stockholders.
 

(b) The free market theory which holds that managers are ethically obliged to make as much money as possible for their.
 

(c) The ethical imperative to cause no harm.
 

(d) The ethical imperative to prevent harm. 
 

Question 4
 

Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the concept of a right?
 

(a) Rights protect a person’s wants.
 

(b) There is really no distinction between a person’s wants and interests. Rights protect both.
 

(c) Rights protect a person’s interests.
 

(d) My rights never correspond to your duties and your duties never correspond to my rights.

Question 5
 

Human rights are:
 

(a) The standards of treatment to which all people are entitled.
 

(b)  Can safely be ignored by international companies.
 

(c) Defined in the united Nations Global Compact.
 

(d) Of no interest to customers of international companies.
 

Question 6
 

Which statement characterizes the moral reasoning typically found in a child?
 

(a) When in ROME, do as the Romans do.  
 

(b) I’II scratch your back, if you’II scratch mine.
 

(c) Seek the greatest good for the greatest number.
 

(d) Respect the rights of others.

Question 7
 

The Iron Law of Responsibility says that:

(a) In the long run, those who do not use power responsibly will lose it.
 

(b) In the short run, sacrifice social goals for economic goals.
 

(c) Law is most important, more than social or economic responsibility.
 

(d) In the long run, economic responsibility leads to social responsibility.
 

Question 8
 

External rewards and internal rewards relate to which part of the ethical decision-making framework?
 

(a) Individual factors
 

(b) Significant others
 

(c) Cognitive moral development
 

(d) Intentions
 

(e) Opportunity
 

Question 10
 

Which one of the following statements about multinational corporations is FALSE?
 

(a) MNCs are corporate organizations that operate on a global scale without significant ties to any one nation or region.
 

(b) MNCs are inherently unethical.
 

(c) MNCs are cauterized by a global strategy of focusing on opportunities throughout the world.
 

(d) Some MNCs are so large and powerful that their revenues are greater than the gross domestic products of some countries.
 

 (e) Because of their size and power, MNCs have been the subject of much  ethical criticism and the source of a number of ethical issues.
 

Question 11
 

The most intense rivalry results from:
 

(a) Numerous equally balanced competitors, slow industry growth, and high fixed or storage costs.  
 

(b) Few competitors, slow industry growth, lack of differentiation, and high fixed or storage costs.
 

(c) Numerous equally balanced competitors, manufacturing capacity increasing only in large increments, and low exit barriers.
 

(d) A high level of differentiation.

 

Question 12

A  crash R&D program by one firm cannot replicate a successful  technology developed by another firm when research findings cumulate.
 

(a) Social complexity.
 

(b) Path dependency.
 

(c) Physical uniqueness.
 

(d) Causal ambiguity

Question 13
 

 Emotional intelligence, as proposed by Daniel Goleman, is manifest in  self-awareness, self-regulation, social skills, empathy, and: 
 

(a) Ambition
 

(b) Motivation
 

(c) Sympathy.
 

(d) Open mindedness

Question 14

Which of the following is not characteristic of well-constructed goals?

(a) They are precise and measurable.
 

(b) They are the result of a group decision process.
 

(c) They specify a time period.
 

(d) They are challenging but realistic.
 

(e) They address critical issues.

Question 15

There are several perspectives of competition. One perspective is zero-sum thinking. Zero-sum thinking means that:

(a) All parts of the organizations gain at no loss.
 

(b) In order for someone to gain, others must experience no gain or benefit.
 

(c) One can only gain at the expense of someone else.
 

(d) Everyone in the organization shares gains and losses equally.
 

Question 16
 

Kaizen means:
 

(a) radical innovation.
 

(b) Incremental innovation.
 

(c) Open innovation.
 

(d) Continuous improvement.
 

Question 17
 

Costs associated with efforts to prevent errors are:
 

(a) Appraisal costs.
 

(b) Direct costs.
 

(c) Prevention costs.
 

(d) Expected costs.
 

Question 18
 

Emerging sociocultrual changes in the environment include:
 

(a) Changes in the ethnic composition.
 

(b) The increasing educational attainment of women in the past decade.
 

(c) Progressively less disposable income by consumers.
 

(d) Changes in the geographic distribution of the population.

Question 19

In  value chain analysis, the activities of organizations are divided into  two major categories of value activities: primary and support. Which of  the following is a primary activity?

(a) Purchasing key inputs.
 

(b) Recruiting and training employees.
 

(c)   Repairing the product for the consumer.
 

(d) Monitoring the cost of producing the product through a cost accounting system.
 

Question 20
 

The balanced scorecard enables managers to consider their business from all of the following perspectives except:
 

(a) Customer perspective.
 

(b) Internal perspective.
 

(c) Innovation and leering perspective.
 

(d) Ethical perspective.
 

Question 21
 

 Imagine your boss wants you to investigate ways your company might be  able enhance customer satisfaction, create an attractive loyalty  program, and reward your customers. Most likely, your company’s  immediate goal is to:
 

(a) Delight customers.
 

(b) Make more money.
 

(c) Enhance product offerings.
 

(d) Redefine its position.
 

Question 22
 

 Giant Grocery Retailer tells Small Cereal Manufacturer that it will not  stock or sell Small Cereal Manufacture’s product line until and unless a  better trade margin is provided. What type of power is Giant Grocery  Retailer exhibiting?
 

(a) Purchasing power.
 

(b) Information power.
 

(c)  Coercive power.
 

(d) Distribution power.

 

Question 23

Company  ABC is interested in better understanding how different groups of  customers feel about its product. In order to this, company ABC will  need to :

(a) Position its product in the market.
 

(b) Segment the market.
 

(c) Mass market.
 

(d) Target market.
 

Question -24
 

 The terms manufacturer , service provider ,government agency, and  wholesaler are  designations used to segment business and organization  markets according to:
 

(a) The type of customer.
 

(b) Demographics.
 

(c) Product use.
 

(d) Buying situations.

  Question-25
 

Which of the following is defined to be an exchange between a firm and its customers?
 

(a) Advertising.
 

(b) Consumer behavior.
 

(c) Marketing.
 

(d) Distribution.
 

Questions:-26
 

Which is an approach for creating a perceptual map?
 

(a) Attribute based.
 

(b) Demography based.
 

(c) Focus group based.
 

(d) Survey based.

Question-27
 

Marketing information should be gathered _________ so the can be in the know and poised for action.
 

(a) Quarterly
 

(b) Annually
 

(c) Constantly
 

(d) Every two years
 

Question-28
 

There are two major class of franchising. One is business format franchising. What is the other one?
 

(a) Market franchising.
 

(b) Product franchising.
 

(c) In- house franchising.
 

(d) Multisite franchising.

Questin-29
 

Which of the following is not part of Michael porter’s five forces model?
 

(a) Industry competitors.
 

(b) Threat of competition imitation strategies.
 

(c) Threat of new entrants.
 

(d) Bargaining power of buyer and suppliers.
 

Question-30
 

In order for an exchange to occur (marketing):
 

(a) A complex societal system must be involved.
 

(b) Organized marketing activities must also accur.
 

(c) A profit-oriented organization must be involved.
 

(d) Each party must have something of value to the other party.
 

Question-31
 

At a price above the equilibrium price, there is ______.
 

(a) A shortage
 

(b) A surplus
 

(c) Excess demand
 

(d) Super –equilibrium
 

(e) None of the above
 

Question-32
 

 At a price for which quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied ,a  __________ is experienced , which pushes the price______ toward its  equilibrium value.
 

(a) Surplus; downward
 

(b) Surplus: upward
 

(c) Shortage: downward
 

(d) Shortage: upward
 

Question-33
 

The minimum wage is an example of a ___________.
 

(a) Price door
 

(b) Price wall
 

(c) Price floor
 

(d) Price ceiling
 

Question-34
 

The supply of product X is perfectly inelastic if the price of X rises by _________.
 

(a) 5 percent and quantity supplied rises by 7 percent
 

(b) 8 percent and quantity supplied rises by 8 percent
 

(c) 7 percent and quantity supplied rises by 5 percent
 

(d) 10 percent and quantity supplied remains the same
 

Question-35
 

If the purchase and sale of a currently illegal drug such as marijuana were decriminalized , we would expect _______.
 

(a) An increase in demand and supply of this drug
 

(b) An increase in demand and a decrease in supply of this drug
 

(c) A decrease in demand and an increase in supply of this drug
 

(d) A decrease in demand and supply of this drug
 

Question-36
 

 John just bought shares of stock in IBM for  $10,000 and paid a $90  commission to his broker . How did this affect GDP (Gross domestic  Product)?
 

(a) It had no impact on GDP.
 

(b) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $90
 

(c) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $10,000
 

(d) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $9,990
 

(e) GDP (Gross Domestic Product ) increased by $10,0903
 

Question-37
 

Which one of the following will cause a movement down along an economy’s consumption schedule?
 

(a)An increase in stock prices.
 

(b) A decrease in stock prices.
 

(c) An increase in consumer indebtedness.
 

(d) A decrease in disposable income.

Question-38
 

The largest component of national income is __________.
 

(a) Rental income
 

(b) Proprietor’s income
 

(c) Compensation of employees
 

(d) Corporate profits
 

(e) Net interest
 

Question-39
 

According to the theory of efficiency wages:
 

(a) The most profitable firms keep wages low.
 

(b) Above –equilibrium wages are paid by the firm to increase worker productivity.
 

(c) Some occupations are predominantly male and some are predominantly female.
 

(d) Differences in human capital explain why firms pay high wages.

Question-40
 

If the CPI (Consumer Price  Index ) is 170 and nominal income is $ 75,000, approximately what does real income equal?
 

(a) $127,500
 

(b) $74,825
 

(c) $75,175
 

(d) $44,118
 

Question-41
 

 Dexter Hemingway is the CEO and Todd Bradley is the CFO of Maxwell Inc.  Unknowingly, both signed the financial report for the financial year  2006/07, Which was misleading. Can they be held liable for punishment?
 

(a) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, both of them must reimburse the company.
 

(b) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, only the CEO will be liable for punishment.
 

(c) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO) ,both of them are required to reimburse the company.
 

(d) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO),only the CFO will be liable for punishment.

 

Question 42

A______ is a public offer to all the shareholders of a corporation to buy their shares at a stated price.

(a) Leveraged buy out
 

(b) Tender offer
 

(c) Target bid
 

(d) Merger

Question 43

If  incorporators cannot show substantial compliance with statutes  regarding incorporation but can show that they were unaware of any  defect and acted in good faith, a court may trat the entity as  a(n)___________.

(a) De jure corporation
 

(b)  Real corporation
 

(c) De facto corporation
 

(d)   Equitable corporation

Question 44
 

 IF Tosca’s negligence causes Scarpia, who has an especially weak heart,  to die of a heart attack, Scarpia,s surviving spouse_______.
 

 (a) Will not be able to recover against TOSCA because Scarpia assumed  the risk of harm when he allowed himself to interact with Tosca, knowing  all the while that he had an especially weak heart.
 

(b) Will not be able to recover against Tosca if her negligence would not have caused a heart attack in normal person
 

(c) Will only be able to recover against Tosca if her behavior was reckless, not merely negligent
 

(d)   Will generally be able to recover against Tosca.

Question 45
 

Today, you might be buying from a regulated natural monopoly when you purchase:
 

(a) A house, a condominium, or a plot of land.
 

(b) Natural gas or electricity.
 

(c) A computer, a phone, or a camera.
 

(d) A car, a truck, or a bicycle.
 

Question 46

Under the Equal protection clause,______.
 

(a) The government must treat like cases alike.
 

(b) States are prohibited from arbitrarily discriminating against persons.
 

(c) States are prohibited from discriminating only on the basis of nationality.
 

(d) The government can uphold restrictions on property.
 

Question 47
 

A person who shares in the profits of the business but NOT in its_______ is not a partner.
 

(a) Management
 

(b) Losses
 

(c) control
 

(d) voting

Question 48
 

Under rational basis analysis,_________.
 

 (a) A government action will be upheld as long as it has a reasonable  relationship to the achievement of a legitimate purpose, even if those  provisions are foolish.
 

(b)    Discrimination on the basis of a suspect category will received highest scrutiny
 

(c) Courts will deem a government action unconditional when the action impinges on a fundamental right.
 

(d) Discrimination on the basis of economic interest will receive highest scrutiny.

 

Question 49
 

 ______ is a process used mainly in the area of public international law  whereby a third party, often a disinterested government, brings the  parties together by establishing communication and providing a site  where the parties can meet, often in secret.
 

(a) Public involvement.
 

(b) Good offices
 

(c) Local involvement
 

(d) Best transitions.
 

Question 50
 

________ law legal systems primarily rely on case law and precedents.
 

(a) Common
 

(b) Civil
 

(c) Statutory
 

(d) Codified
 

Question 51
 

A firm changes from Last I n First Out to First In First Out; this change will be found in the:
 

(a) The balance sheet.
 

(b) The income statement.
 

(c) The statement of cash flows.
 

(d) Notes to the financial statements.

Question 52

Financial leverage impacts the performance of the firm by:

(a) Increasing the volatility of the firm’s earnings before interest & taxes.
 

(b) Decreasing the volatility of the firm’s earnings before interest & taxes.
 

(c)  Decreasing the volatility of the firm’s net income.
 

(d) Increasing the volatility of the firm’s net income.

Question 53
 

In the financial planning model, external funds needed (EFN) is equal to changes in;
 

(a) Assets-(liabilities-equity).
 

(b) Assets-(liabilities + equity).
 

(c) (Assets+ liabilities-equity).
 

(d)  (Assets + equity-liabilities).

 

Question 54

Use  the following information and horizontal analysis to compute the  percentage increase in sales: Year X sales  were $200,000 and year (X+1)  sales were $250,000.

(a) Sales increased by 80%.
 

(b) Sales increased by 25%
 

(c) Sales increased by 20%
 

(d) Sales increased by 125%
 

Question 55
 

 The counting house Inc., purchased a 5-year property class equipment  for $60,000. The firm uses the MACRS method of depreciation. What is tax  depreciation for the second year of the asset’s life”?
 

(a) 12000
 

(b) 19200
 

(c) 20000
 

(d) 24000
 

Question 56
 

Which one of the following would not be counted as part of incremental cash flow?
 

(a) Opportunity cost.
 

(b) Sunk cost.
 

(c) External cost such as brand cannibalism.
 

(d) External benefit such as acquisition of new technology which can be applied to other projects.
 

Question 57

The financial ratio days’ sales in receivables is measured as:

(a) Receivables turnover plus 365 days.
 

(b) Accounts receivable times 365 days.
 

(c) Accounts receivable plus sales, divided by 365 days.
 

(d) 365 days divided by the receivables turnover. 
 

Question 58

The  firm’s _______ are primarily interested in ratios that measure the  short-term liquidity of the company and its ability to make principal  and interest payments.
 

(a) Board of directors
 

(b) Creditors
 

(c) Owners
 

(d) Financial managers
 

(e) Customers
 

Question 59
 

Which one of the following would not be counted after the end of a project?
 

(a) Scarp value.
 

(b) Continuation value.
 

(c) Release of working capital.
 

(d) Change in working capital.

Question 60
 

An increase in which one of the following accounts increases a firm’s current ratio without affecting its quick ratio?
 

(a) Accounts payable
 

(b)  Cash
 

(c) Inventory
 

(d) Accounts receivable

 

Question 61

Which structure is usually optimal for project based organizations with fluctuating workloads?

(a) Functional.
 

(b) Divisional
 

(c)  Matrix.
 

(d) Network.
 

Question 62
 

The right to self-determination and freedom from the control of others is called:
 

(a) Beneficence.
 

(b) Justice.
 

(c) Fidelity.
 

(d) Autonomy.

Question 63

An important activity in _______ is taking corrective action.

(a) Strategy formulation
 

(b) Strategy evaluation
 

(c) Strategy manipulation
 

(d) Strategy implementation
 

Question 64

For a culture to exist, it must be all of the following EXCEPT________.
 

(a) Shared by the vast majority of members.
 

(b) Be passed from generation to generation.
 

(c) Shape perceptions, judgments, and feelings.
 

(d) Be distinct from decisions and behaviors.

 

Question 65

Advantages of the place design include all of the following except:

(a) Direct contact with customers in each locale.
 

(b) Managers in each market become generalists.
 

(c) Proximity to suppliers.
 

(d) Proximity to customers.
 

Question 66

A main force pushing toward a network structure is that an organizations has_________ core competencies.
 

(a) Undefined
 

(b) A few
 

(c) Interdependent
 

(d) Independent
 

Question 67
 

A flat organizational structure creates a(n)______ span of control.
 

(a) Tall
 

(b) Narrow
 

(c) Wide
 

(d) Centralized
 

Question 68
 

The term______refers to formal statements specifying acceptable and unacceptable behaviors and decisions by employees.

(a) Strategies
 

(b) Impersonality
 

(c) Tactics
 

(d) Rules

 

Question 69

________  refers to the lack of information regarding what needs to be done in a  role, as well as unpredictability regarding the consequences of  performance in that role.
 

(a) Time pressure
 

(b) Daily hassles
 

(c) Role overload
 

(d) Role ambiguity
 

(e) Role conflict
 

Question 70

The  strategy that is based on an organization’s ability to provide a  product or service at a lower cost than its rivals is referred to  as________.

(a) Discount
 

(b) Differentiation
 

(c)  Focused
 

(d) Low-cost
 

Question 71

Paid-in Capital represents:
 

(a) Earnings retained for use in the business.
 

(b) The amount invested in the entity by the owners.
 

(c) Market value of the entity’s common stock.
 

(d) Net assets of the entity at the date of the statement.
 

Question 72

At  the beginning of the fiscal year, the balance sheet showed assets of  $1,364 and owners equity of $836. During the year, assets increased $ 74  and liabilities decreased $38. Owner’s equity at the end of the year  totaled:

(a) $836
 

(b) $872
 

(c) $948
 

(d) $1438
 

Question 73
 

The number of times interest charges are earned is computed as:
 

(a) Net income plus interest charges, divided by interest charges.
 

(b) Income before income tax plus interest charges, divided by interest charges.
 

(c) Net income divided by interest charges.
 

(d) Income before income tax divided by interest charges.
 

Question 74

The  tendency of the rate earned on stockholders equity to vary  disproportionately from the rate earned on total assets is sometimes  referred to as:
 

(a) Leverage.
 

(b) Solvency.
 

(c) Yield.
 

(d)  Quick assets. 
 

Question 75
 

 Which method of evaluating capital investment proposals uses present  value concepts to compute the rate of return from the net cash flows  expected from capital investment proposals?
 

(a) Internal rate of return
 

(b) Cash Payback
 

(c) Net present value
 

(d) Average rate of return
 

Question 76

Statements in which all items are expressed only in relative terms (percentages of a common bas )are:
 

(a) Horizontal statements.
 

(b) Percentage statements
 

(c) Vertical statements.
 

(d) Common-size statements.

 

Question 77

The reason for recoding a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
 

(a) That the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund. 
 

(b) That the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
 

(c) That the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
 

(d) To avoid recognizing an expense so net income will be higher for the current accounting period.
 

Question 78

Current  generally accepted Accounting Principles and auditing standards require  that financial statements of an entity for the reporting period to  include:

(a) Earnings and gross receipts of cash for the period.
 

(b) Projected earnings for the subsequent period.
 

(c) Financial position at the end of the period.
 

(d) Current market values of all assets at the end of the period.
 

Question 79

Which  of the flowing ratios provides a solvency measure that shows the margin  of safety of note holders or bondholders and also gives an indication  of the potential ability of the business to borrow additional funds on a  long-term basis?
 

(a) Ratio of fixed assets to long-term liabilities.
 

(b) Ratio of net sales to assets
 

(c) Number of days’ sales in receivables
 

(d) Rate earned on stockholders’ equity

Question 80
 

 Sage, Inc has 20 employees who each earn $ 100 per day and are paid  every Friday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday.

(a) $2,000
 

(b) $1,000
 

(c) $0
 

(d) $6,000

Question 81
 

 Testing the probability of a relationship between variables occurring  by chance alone if there really was no difference in the population from  which that sample was drawn is knows as:
 

(a) Multiple regression analysis.
 

(b) Chi-squared test.
 

(c) Correlation coefficient.
 

(d) Significance testing.
 

Question 82
 

A Type II error is defined as ________.
 

(a) Rejecting a true null hypothesis
 

(b) Rejecting a false null hypothesis
 

(c) Not rejecting a true null hypothesis
 

(d)  Not rejecting a false null hypothesis
 

 Question 83
 

The numbers of rooms for 15 homes recently sold were (mean=7.4):8,8,8,5,9,8,7,6,6,7,7,7,7,9, and 9. What is the variance?
 

(a) 1.183
 

(b) 1.4
 

(c)  4
 

(d) 16
 

(e) 1.96
 

Question 84
 

Which of the following is an Excel add-in for simulation?
 

(a) Precision tree
 

(b) TopRank
 

(c) BestFit
 

(d) @Risk
 

(e) Riskview

Question 85
 

ANOVA is:
 

(a) A government body which collects social statistics.
 

(b) A two-way analysis variance.
 

(c) The Name of a statistical software package.
 

(d) A one-way analysis of variance.
 

Question 86
 

Which of the following statements are false?
 

(a) The modeling process discussed in Data analysis & Decision making book is a five-step process.
 

(b) Dealing with uncertainty requires a basis understanding of probability.
 

(c) Uncertainty is a key aspect of most business problems.
 

(d) Data description and data inference are included under data analysis.
 

Question 87

In a criminal trial, a type II error is made when__________.
 

(a) A guilty defendant is acquitted
 

(b) An innocent person is convicted
 

(c) A guilty defendant is convicted
 

(d) An innocent person is acquitted

Question 88

What is the name of the test that is used to assess the relationship two ordinal variables?
 

(a) Spearman’s rho.
 

(b) Phi.
 

(c) Cramer’s V.
 

(d) Chi square.
 

Question 89

Which one of the following would be considered a state of nature for a business firm?

(a) Inventory levels.
 

(b) Salaries for employees.
 

(c)  Site for a new plant.
 

(d) Worker safety laws.
 

Question 90
 

The number of miles a truck is divine before it is overhauled is an examples of a(n)_______variable.
 

(a) Nominative
 

(b) Ordinal
 

(c) Interval
 

(d) Ratio

Answers 0 

default image
July 1, 2023
    

90 exam questions 

BUS 599: Strategic Management Exam

Question 1
 

Which of the following IS NOT an argument in favor of corporate social responsibility?
 

(a) Imposes unequal costs among competitors.
 

(b) Responds to changing stakeholders’ demands.
 

(c) Corrects social problems caused by business.
 

(d) Discourages government regulation.
 

Question 2
 

The ethical roots of the classical model of corporate social responsibility are found in which statement?
 

(a) The idea that the interests of stakeholders are as important as the interests of a corporation’s stockholders.
 

(b) The free market theory which holds that managers are ethically obliged to make as much money as possible for their.
 

(c) The ethical imperative to cause no harm.
 

(d) The ethical imperative to prevent harm. 
 

Question 4
 

Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the concept of a right?
 

(a) Rights protect a person’s wants.
 

(b) There is really no distinction between a person’s wants and interests. Rights protect both.
 

(c) Rights protect a person’s interests.
 

(d) My rights never correspond to your duties and your duties never correspond to my rights.

Question 5
 

Human rights are:
 

(a) The standards of treatment to which all people are entitled.
 

(b)  Can safely be ignored by international companies.
 

(c) Defined in the united Nations Global Compact.
 

(d) Of no interest to customers of international companies.
 

Question 6
 

Which statement characterizes the moral reasoning typically found in a child?
 

(a) When in ROME, do as the Romans do.  
 

(b) I’II scratch your back, if you’II scratch mine.
 

(c) Seek the greatest good for the greatest number.
 

(d) Respect the rights of others.

Question 7
 

The Iron Law of Responsibility says that:

(a) In the long run, those who do not use power responsibly will lose it.
 

(b) In the short run, sacrifice social goals for economic goals.
 

(c) Law is most important, more than social or economic responsibility.
 

(d) In the long run, economic responsibility leads to social responsibility.
 

Question 8
 

External rewards and internal rewards relate to which part of the ethical decision-making framework?
 

(a) Individual factors
 

(b) Significant others
 

(c) Cognitive moral development
 

(d) Intentions
 

(e) Opportunity
 

Question 10
 

Which one of the following statements about multinational corporations is FALSE?
 

(a) MNCs are corporate organizations that operate on a global scale without significant ties to any one nation or region.
 

(b) MNCs are inherently unethical.
 

(c) MNCs are cauterized by a global strategy of focusing on opportunities throughout the world.
 

(d) Some MNCs are so large and powerful that their revenues are greater than the gross domestic products of some countries.
 

 (e) Because of their size and power, MNCs have been the subject of much  ethical criticism and the source of a number of ethical issues.
 

Question 11
 

The most intense rivalry results from:
 

(a) Numerous equally balanced competitors, slow industry growth, and high fixed or storage costs.  
 

(b) Few competitors, slow industry growth, lack of differentiation, and high fixed or storage costs.
 

(c) Numerous equally balanced competitors, manufacturing capacity increasing only in large increments, and low exit barriers.
 

(d) A high level of differentiation.

 

Question 12

A  crash R&D program by one firm cannot replicate a successful  technology developed by another firm when research findings cumulate.
 

(a) Social complexity.
 

(b) Path dependency.
 

(c) Physical uniqueness.
 

(d) Causal ambiguity

Question 13
 

 Emotional intelligence, as proposed by Daniel Goleman, is manifest in  self-awareness, self-regulation, social skills, empathy, and: 
 

(a) Ambition
 

(b) Motivation
 

(c) Sympathy.
 

(d) Open mindedness

Question 14

Which of the following is not characteristic of well-constructed goals?

(a) They are precise and measurable.
 

(b) They are the result of a group decision process.
 

(c) They specify a time period.
 

(d) They are challenging but realistic.
 

(e) They address critical issues.

Question 15

There are several perspectives of competition. One perspective is zero-sum thinking. Zero-sum thinking means that:

(a) All parts of the organizations gain at no loss.
 

(b) In order for someone to gain, others must experience no gain or benefit.
 

(c) One can only gain at the expense of someone else.
 

(d) Everyone in the organization shares gains and losses equally.
 

Question 16
 

Kaizen means:
 

(a) radical innovation.
 

(b) Incremental innovation.
 

(c) Open innovation.
 

(d) Continuous improvement.
 

Question 17
 

Costs associated with efforts to prevent errors are:
 

(a) Appraisal costs.
 

(b) Direct costs.
 

(c) Prevention costs.
 

(d) Expected costs.
 

Question 18
 

Emerging sociocultrual changes in the environment include:
 

(a) Changes in the ethnic composition.
 

(b) The increasing educational attainment of women in the past decade.
 

(c) Progressively less disposable income by consumers.
 

(d) Changes in the geographic distribution of the population.

Question 19

In  value chain analysis, the activities of organizations are divided into  two major categories of value activities: primary and support. Which of  the following is a primary activity?

(a) Purchasing key inputs.
 

(b) Recruiting and training employees.
 

(c)   Repairing the product for the consumer.
 

(d) Monitoring the cost of producing the product through a cost accounting system.
 

Question 20
 

The balanced scorecard enables managers to consider their business from all of the following perspectives except:
 

(a) Customer perspective.
 

(b) Internal perspective.
 

(c) Innovation and leering perspective.
 

(d) Ethical perspective.
 

Question 21
 

 Imagine your boss wants you to investigate ways your company might be  able enhance customer satisfaction, create an attractive loyalty  program, and reward your customers. Most likely, your company’s  immediate goal is to:
 

(a) Delight customers.
 

(b) Make more money.
 

(c) Enhance product offerings.
 

(d) Redefine its position.
 

Question 22
 

 Giant Grocery Retailer tells Small Cereal Manufacturer that it will not  stock or sell Small Cereal Manufacture’s product line until and unless a  better trade margin is provided. What type of power is Giant Grocery  Retailer exhibiting?
 

(a) Purchasing power.
 

(b) Information power.
 

(c)  Coercive power.
 

(d) Distribution power.

 

Question 23

Company  ABC is interested in better understanding how different groups of  customers feel about its product. In order to this, company ABC will  need to :

(a) Position its product in the market.
 

(b) Segment the market.
 

(c) Mass market.
 

(d) Target market.
 

Question -24
 

 The terms manufacturer , service provider ,government agency, and  wholesaler are  designations used to segment business and organization  markets according to:
 

(a) The type of customer.
 

(b) Demographics.
 

(c) Product use.
 

(d) Buying situations.

  Question-25
 

Which of the following is defined to be an exchange between a firm and its customers?
 

(a) Advertising.
 

(b) Consumer behavior.
 

(c) Marketing.
 

(d) Distribution.
 

Questions:-26
 

Which is an approach for creating a perceptual map?
 

(a) Attribute based.
 

(b) Demography based.
 

(c) Focus group based.
 

(d) Survey based.

Question-27
 

Marketing information should be gathered _________ so the can be in the know and poised for action.
 

(a) Quarterly
 

(b) Annually
 

(c) Constantly
 

(d) Every two years
 

Question-28
 

There are two major class of franchising. One is business format franchising. What is the other one?
 

(a) Market franchising.
 

(b) Product franchising.
 

(c) In- house franchising.
 

(d) Multisite franchising.

Questin-29
 

Which of the following is not part of Michael porter’s five forces model?
 

(a) Industry competitors.
 

(b) Threat of competition imitation strategies.
 

(c) Threat of new entrants.
 

(d) Bargaining power of buyer and suppliers.
 

Question-30
 

In order for an exchange to occur (marketing):
 

(a) A complex societal system must be involved.
 

(b) Organized marketing activities must also accur.
 

(c) A profit-oriented organization must be involved.
 

(d) Each party must have something of value to the other party.
 

Question-31
 

At a price above the equilibrium price, there is ______.
 

(a) A shortage
 

(b) A surplus
 

(c) Excess demand
 

(d) Super –equilibrium
 

(e) None of the above
 

Question-32
 

 At a price for which quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied ,a  __________ is experienced , which pushes the price______ toward its  equilibrium value.
 

(a) Surplus; downward
 

(b) Surplus: upward
 

(c) Shortage: downward
 

(d) Shortage: upward
 

Question-33
 

The minimum wage is an example of a ___________.
 

(a) Price door
 

(b) Price wall
 

(c) Price floor
 

(d) Price ceiling
 

Question-34
 

The supply of product X is perfectly inelastic if the price of X rises by _________.
 

(a) 5 percent and quantity supplied rises by 7 percent
 

(b) 8 percent and quantity supplied rises by 8 percent
 

(c) 7 percent and quantity supplied rises by 5 percent
 

(d) 10 percent and quantity supplied remains the same
 

Question-35
 

If the purchase and sale of a currently illegal drug such as marijuana were decriminalized , we would expect _______.
 

(a) An increase in demand and supply of this drug
 

(b) An increase in demand and a decrease in supply of this drug
 

(c) A decrease in demand and an increase in supply of this drug
 

(d) A decrease in demand and supply of this drug
 

Question-36
 

 John just bought shares of stock in IBM for  $10,000 and paid a $90  commission to his broker . How did this affect GDP (Gross domestic  Product)?
 

(a) It had no impact on GDP.
 

(b) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $90
 

(c) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $10,000
 

(d) GDP (Gross Domestic Product) increased by $9,990
 

(e) GDP (Gross Domestic Product ) increased by $10,0903
 

Question-37
 

Which one of the following will cause a movement down along an economy’s consumption schedule?
 

(a)An increase in stock prices.
 

(b) A decrease in stock prices.
 

(c) An increase in consumer indebtedness.
 

(d) A decrease in disposable income.

Question-38
 

The largest component of national income is __________.
 

(a) Rental income
 

(b) Proprietor’s income
 

(c) Compensation of employees
 

(d) Corporate profits
 

(e) Net interest
 

Question-39
 

According to the theory of efficiency wages:
 

(a) The most profitable firms keep wages low.
 

(b) Above –equilibrium wages are paid by the firm to increase worker productivity.
 

(c) Some occupations are predominantly male and some are predominantly female.
 

(d) Differences in human capital explain why firms pay high wages.

Question-40
 

If the CPI (Consumer Price  Index ) is 170 and nominal income is $ 75,000, approximately what does real income equal?
 

(a) $127,500
 

(b) $74,825
 

(c) $75,175
 

(d) $44,118
 

Question-41
 

 Dexter Hemingway is the CEO and Todd Bradley is the CFO of Maxwell Inc.  Unknowingly, both signed the financial report for the financial year  2006/07, Which was misleading. Can they be held liable for punishment?
 

(a) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, both of them must reimburse the company.
 

(b) Under the Sarbanes – Oxley Act, only the CEO will be liable for punishment.
 

(c) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO) ,both of them are required to reimburse the company.
 

(d) Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organization Act(RICO),only the CFO will be liable for punishment.

 

Question 42

A______ is a public offer to all the shareholders of a corporation to buy their shares at a stated price.

(a) Leveraged buy out
 

(b) Tender offer
 

(c) Target bid
 

(d) Merger

Question 43

If  incorporators cannot show substantial compliance with statutes  regarding incorporation but can show that they were unaware of any  defect and acted in good faith, a court may trat the entity as  a(n)___________.

(a) De jure corporation
 

(b)  Real corporation
 

(c) De facto corporation
 

(d)   Equitable corporation

Question 44
 

 IF Tosca’s negligence causes Scarpia, who has an especially weak heart,  to die of a heart attack, Scarpia,s surviving spouse_______.
 

 (a) Will not be able to recover against TOSCA because Scarpia assumed  the risk of harm when he allowed himself to interact with Tosca, knowing  all the while that he had an especially weak heart.
 

(b) Will not be able to recover against Tosca if her negligence would not have caused a heart attack in normal person
 

(c) Will only be able to recover against Tosca if her behavior was reckless, not merely negligent
 

(d)   Will generally be able to recover against Tosca.

Question 45
 

Today, you might be buying from a regulated natural monopoly when you purchase:
 

(a) A house, a condominium, or a plot of land.
 

(b) Natural gas or electricity.
 

(c) A computer, a phone, or a camera.
 

(d) A car, a truck, or a bicycle.
 

Question 46

Under the Equal protection clause,______.
 

(a) The government must treat like cases alike.
 

(b) States are prohibited from arbitrarily discriminating against persons.
 

(c) States are prohibited from discriminating only on the basis of nationality.
 

(d) The government can uphold restrictions on property.
 

Question 47
 

A person who shares in the profits of the business but NOT in its_______ is not a partner.
 

(a) Management
 

(b) Losses
 

(c) control
 

(d) voting

Question 48
 

Under rational basis analysis,_________.
 

 (a) A government action will be upheld as long as it has a reasonable  relationship to the achievement of a legitimate purpose, even if those  provisions are foolish.
 

(b)    Discrimination on the basis of a suspect category will received highest scrutiny
 

(c) Courts will deem a government action unconditional when the action impinges on a fundamental right.
 

(d) Discrimination on the basis of economic interest will receive highest scrutiny.

 

Question 49
 

 ______ is a process used mainly in the area of public international law  whereby a third party, often a disinterested government, brings the  parties together by establishing communication and providing a site  where the parties can meet, often in secret.
 

(a) Public involvement.
 

(b) Good offices
 

(c) Local involvement
 

(d) Best transitions.
 

Question 50
 

________ law legal systems primarily rely on case law and precedents.
 

(a) Common
 

(b) Civil
 

(c) Statutory
 

(d) Codified
 

Question 51
 

A firm changes from Last I n First Out to First In First Out; this change will be found in the:
 

(a) The balance sheet.
 

(b) The income statement.
 

(c) The statement of cash flows.
 

(d) Notes to the financial statements.

Question 52

Financial leverage impacts the performance of the firm by:

(a) Increasing the volatility of the firm’s earnings before interest & taxes.
 

(b) Decreasing the volatility of the firm’s earnings before interest & taxes.
 

(c)  Decreasing the volatility of the firm’s net income.
 

(d) Increasing the volatility of the firm’s net income.

Question 53
 

In the financial planning model, external funds needed (EFN) is equal to changes in;
 

(a) Assets-(liabilities-equity).
 

(b) Assets-(liabilities + equity).
 

(c) (Assets+ liabilities-equity).
 

(d)  (Assets + equity-liabilities).

 

Question 54

Use  the following information and horizontal analysis to compute the  percentage increase in sales: Year X sales  were $200,000 and year (X+1)  sales were $250,000.

(a) Sales increased by 80%.
 

(b) Sales increased by 25%
 

(c) Sales increased by 20%
 

(d) Sales increased by 125%
 

Question 55
 

 The counting house Inc., purchased a 5-year property class equipment  for $60,000. The firm uses the MACRS method of depreciation. What is tax  depreciation for the second year of the asset’s life”?
 

(a) 12000
 

(b) 19200
 

(c) 20000
 

(d) 24000
 

Question 56
 

Which one of the following would not be counted as part of incremental cash flow?
 

(a) Opportunity cost.
 

(b) Sunk cost.
 

(c) External cost such as brand cannibalism.
 

(d) External benefit such as acquisition of new technology which can be applied to other projects.
 

Question 57

The financial ratio days’ sales in receivables is measured as:

(a) Receivables turnover plus 365 days.
 

(b) Accounts receivable times 365 days.
 

(c) Accounts receivable plus sales, divided by 365 days.
 

(d) 365 days divided by the receivables turnover. 
 

Question 58

The  firm’s _______ are primarily interested in ratios that measure the  short-term liquidity of the company and its ability to make principal  and interest payments.
 

(a) Board of directors
 

(b) Creditors
 

(c) Owners
 

(d) Financial managers
 

(e) Customers
 

Question 59
 

Which one of the following would not be counted after the end of a project?
 

(a) Scarp value.
 

(b) Continuation value.
 

(c) Release of working capital.
 

(d) Change in working capital.

Question 60
 

An increase in which one of the following accounts increases a firm’s current ratio without affecting its quick ratio?
 

(a) Accounts payable
 

(b)  Cash
 

(c) Inventory
 

(d) Accounts receivable

 

Question 61

Which structure is usually optimal for project based organizations with fluctuating workloads?

(a) Functional.
 

(b) Divisional
 

(c)  Matrix.
 

(d) Network.
 

Question 62
 

The right to self-determination and freedom from the control of others is called:
 

(a) Beneficence.
 

(b) Justice.
 

(c) Fidelity.
 

(d) Autonomy.

Question 63

An important activity in _______ is taking corrective action.

(a) Strategy formulation
 

(b) Strategy evaluation
 

(c) Strategy manipulation
 

(d) Strategy implementation
 

Question 64

For a culture to exist, it must be all of the following EXCEPT________.
 

(a) Shared by the vast majority of members.
 

(b) Be passed from generation to generation.
 

(c) Shape perceptions, judgments, and feelings.
 

(d) Be distinct from decisions and behaviors.

 

Question 65

Advantages of the place design include all of the following except:

(a) Direct contact with customers in each locale.
 

(b) Managers in each market become generalists.
 

(c) Proximity to suppliers.
 

(d) Proximity to customers.
 

Question 66

A main force pushing toward a network structure is that an organizations has_________ core competencies.
 

(a) Undefined
 

(b) A few
 

(c) Interdependent
 

(d) Independent
 

Question 67
 

A flat organizational structure creates a(n)______ span of control.
 

(a) Tall
 

(b) Narrow
 

(c) Wide
 

(d) Centralized
 

Question 68
 

The term______refers to formal statements specifying acceptable and unacceptable behaviors and decisions by employees.

(a) Strategies
 

(b) Impersonality
 

(c) Tactics
 

(d) Rules

 

Question 69

________  refers to the lack of information regarding what needs to be done in a  role, as well as unpredictability regarding the consequences of  performance in that role.
 

(a) Time pressure
 

(b) Daily hassles
 

(c) Role overload
 

(d) Role ambiguity
 

(e) Role conflict
 

Question 70

The  strategy that is based on an organization’s ability to provide a  product or service at a lower cost than its rivals is referred to  as________.

(a) Discount
 

(b) Differentiation
 

(c)  Focused
 

(d) Low-cost
 

Question 71

Paid-in Capital represents:
 

(a) Earnings retained for use in the business.
 

(b) The amount invested in the entity by the owners.
 

(c) Market value of the entity’s common stock.
 

(d) Net assets of the entity at the date of the statement.
 

Question 72

At  the beginning of the fiscal year, the balance sheet showed assets of  $1,364 and owners equity of $836. During the year, assets increased $ 74  and liabilities decreased $38. Owner’s equity at the end of the year  totaled:

(a) $836
 

(b) $872
 

(c) $948
 

(d) $1438
 

Question 73
 

The number of times interest charges are earned is computed as:
 

(a) Net income plus interest charges, divided by interest charges.
 

(b) Income before income tax plus interest charges, divided by interest charges.
 

(c) Net income divided by interest charges.
 

(d) Income before income tax divided by interest charges.
 

Question 74

The  tendency of the rate earned on stockholders equity to vary  disproportionately from the rate earned on total assets is sometimes  referred to as:
 

(a) Leverage.
 

(b) Solvency.
 

(c) Yield.
 

(d)  Quick assets. 
 

Question 75
 

 Which method of evaluating capital investment proposals uses present  value concepts to compute the rate of return from the net cash flows  expected from capital investment proposals?
 

(a) Internal rate of return
 

(b) Cash Payback
 

(c) Net present value
 

(d) Average rate of return
 

Question 76

Statements in which all items are expressed only in relative terms (percentages of a common bas )are:
 

(a) Horizontal statements.
 

(b) Percentage statements
 

(c) Vertical statements.
 

(d) Common-size statements.

 

Question 77

The reason for recoding a prepaid expense as a current asset is:
 

(a) That the prepaid item will be returned for a cash refund. 
 

(b) That the prepaid item has not yet become an expense.
 

(c) That the expense has been incurred but not yet paid.
 

(d) To avoid recognizing an expense so net income will be higher for the current accounting period.
 

Question 78

Current  generally accepted Accounting Principles and auditing standards require  that financial statements of an entity for the reporting period to  include:

(a) Earnings and gross receipts of cash for the period.
 

(b) Projected earnings for the subsequent period.
 

(c) Financial position at the end of the period.
 

(d) Current market values of all assets at the end of the period.
 

Question 79

Which  of the flowing ratios provides a solvency measure that shows the margin  of safety of note holders or bondholders and also gives an indication  of the potential ability of the business to borrow additional funds on a  long-term basis?
 

(a) Ratio of fixed assets to long-term liabilities.
 

(b) Ratio of net sales to assets
 

(c) Number of days’ sales in receivables
 

(d) Rate earned on stockholders’ equity

Question 80
 

 Sage, Inc has 20 employees who each earn $ 100 per day and are paid  every Friday. The end of the accounting period is on a Wednesday.

(a) $2,000
 

(b) $1,000
 

(c) $0
 

(d) $6,000

Question 81
 

 Testing the probability of a relationship between variables occurring  by chance alone if there really was no difference in the population from  which that sample was drawn is knows as:
 

(a) Multiple regression analysis.
 

(b) Chi-squared test.
 

(c) Correlation coefficient.
 

(d) Significance testing.
 

Question 82
 

A Type II error is defined as ________.
 

(a) Rejecting a true null hypothesis
 

(b) Rejecting a false null hypothesis
 

(c) Not rejecting a true null hypothesis
 

(d)  Not rejecting a false null hypothesis
 

 Question 83
 

The numbers of rooms for 15 homes recently sold were (mean=7.4):8,8,8,5,9,8,7,6,6,7,7,7,7,9, and 9. What is the variance?
 

(a) 1.183
 

(b) 1.4
 

(c)  4
 

(d) 16
 

(e) 1.96
 

Question 84
 

Which of the following is an Excel add-in for simulation?
 

(a) Precision tree
 

(b) TopRank
 

(c) BestFit
 

(d) @Risk
 

(e) Riskview

Question 85
 

ANOVA is:
 

(a) A government body which collects social statistics.
 

(b) A two-way analysis variance.
 

(c) The Name of a statistical software package.
 

(d) A one-way analysis of variance.
 

Question 86
 

Which of the following statements are false?
 

(a) The modeling process discussed in Data analysis & Decision making book is a five-step process.
 

(b) Dealing with uncertainty requires a basis understanding of probability.
 

(c) Uncertainty is a key aspect of most business problems.
 

(d) Data description and data inference are included under data analysis.
 

Question 87

In a criminal trial, a type II error is made when__________.
 

(a) A guilty defendant is acquitted
 

(b) An innocent person is convicted
 

(c) A guilty defendant is convicted
 

(d) An innocent person is acquitted

Question 88

What is the name of the test that is used to assess the relationship two ordinal variables?
 

(a) Spearman’s rho.
 

(b) Phi.
 

(c) Cramer’s V.
 

(d) Chi square.
 

Question 89

Which one of the following would be considered a state of nature for a business firm?

(a) Inventory levels.
 

(b) Salaries for employees.
 

(c)  Site for a new plant.
 

(d) Worker safety laws.
 

Question 90
 

The number of miles a truck is divine before it is overhauled is an examples of a(n)_______variable.
 

(a) Nominative
 

(b) Ordinal
 

(c) Interval
 

(d) Ratio

Answers 0 

default image
Essay (any type)
August 22, 2022
    

They have a magnificent team. These people are always kind and willing to listen to your concerns or issues. Better yet, your assignment is always ready before the time, they usually send you a draft to double-check before they finalize your paper.

 

default image
Customer #32567
Zoology, 8 Pages
Case study
August 22, 2022
    

Completed quickly and followed instructions given. Grammar, spelling, etc. was all good as well. Thank you so much! Will hire in the future.

default image
Customer #30093
Biology (and other Life Sciences), 6 pages
Presentation/PPT
August 22, 2022
    

The work has not been graded but I like the output that was submitted to me. Is it possible for the same prof to do the next assignment I will be submitting? If possible, I will greatly appreciate it.

default image
Customer #37612
Computer science, 8 pages
Journal article
August 22, 2022
    

My third using this writer and absolutely amazing work! Very punctual and very understanding.

default image
Customer #34820
Agriculture, 4 pages
Article
August 22, 2022
    

Outstanding job in writing my paper. I am always thrill to receive a well written paper that follows the instructions and the thorough details put into my paper. The quality of this paper is beyond awesome. Thank you so much.

default image
Customer #17907
Technology, 5 pages
Thesis/Thesis chapter
August 22, 2022
    

I absolutely love this writer! He/she always cranks out a fabulous paper and follows the assignment guidelines/instructions perfectly. Thanks again for always providing such quality work!!!

default image
Customer #32146
Economics, 9 pages
Research paper
August 22, 2022
    

It took some time to achieve the product I was looking for, but we eventually got there. I do feel like a lot of hard work was put into this, and it even exceeded the page requirement. I'm pretty pleased overall. I give my thanks.

default image
Customer #22371
Ecology, 5 pages
Lab Report
August 22, 2022
    

Outstanding work! This writer followed every instruction and my paper came back with an A! I recommend to anyone needing help! Thank you again ❤️

default image
Customer #13712
Nursing, 6 pages
Outline
August 22, 2022
    

Outstanding job in writing my paper. I am always thrill to receive a well written paper that follows the instructions and the thorough details put into my paper. The quality of this paper is beyond awesome. Thank you so much.

default image
Customer #267302
IT, Web, 6 pages
Essay (any type)
August 22, 2022
    

Made 100% on both the outline and the paper. Quick turnaround time and my writer responded within 30 min or less. Any edits my instructor needed, my writer was patient and worked diligently to accomplish the task. Would recommend my writer to anyone!

default image
Customer #14472
International Trade, 8 pages
Essay (any type)
August 5, 2021
    

You are making my life so much easier! I am a single mom that works and goes to school. You guys are helping me with my projects so I can have more free time with my son.

default image
customer #13832
Tourism, 3 pages
Annotated Bibliography
August 5, 2021
    

I was sure it can fit in a single page but the next time I will add one more page because I am impressed with your professionalism and quality. Will use many more times till I graduate.

default image
customer #12008
Management, 7 pages
Essay (any type)
August 5, 2021
    

Simple registration and quality services. I just ordered one paper, and it was good enough to pass the exam. That is what I need the most. Good job.

default image
customer #16257
Communication, 4 pages
Research Proposal
August 5, 2021
    

I couldn’t finish my freaking essay, and I was very desperate. A friend of mine sent me a link, and that is how I found out about you guys. Thank you for professional tips and editing. Now, I understand how to write it properly.

default image
customer #17128
Law, 5 pages
Reflection
August 5, 2021
    

I’m so grateful to you since you managed to complete my term paper in one day! You are definitely the best company ever!

default image
customer #16528
Public Relations, 7 pages
Essay (any type)
August 5, 2021
    

I am sure on your ability to provide any type of paper I will order. I wish I could develop that skill your writers have to be able to have a flow of ideas and excellent sequencing of thoughts in writing.

default image
customer #19552
Medicine, 5 pages
Coursework
August 5, 2021
    

I ordered a thesis paper and was satisfied. All the guys were polite and highly professional, even when I wrote to them several times per day. Thanks for your passion!

default image
customer #20376
Nursing, 6 pages
Discussion Essay
August 5, 2021
    

I turned to the service twice, and my papers always were beyond the expectations. To tell the truth, I was ready to find some grammar errors or something like that. However, everything was neat and tidy.

default image
customer #18529
Marketing, 1 page
August 5, 2021

My friend recommended Doctor My Essay to me. It is convenient! Now we both turn to the service periodically coz wanna save some time and use it more effectively. I know that while I’m developing my startup, an expert is working on paper. Time management in work!

default image
Research Paper
August 5, 2021
    

I write all paper works by myself but have some problems with literacy. Actually, I have enormous problems because English is not my native language. However, with proofreading from Doctor My Essay, I can relax and don’t be ashamed of mistakes.

default image
customer #12924
Business, 7 pages
Argumentative Essay
August 5, 2021
    

Your ability to write concisely is a finding. The paper has a solid argument. It’s clear that the writer understood central claim about the topic. He also presented original ideas to consider.

default image
customer #19304
Management, 3 pages
Coursework
August 5, 2021
    

That paper got the highest grade in my class and the professor thinks I’m the smartest student. Lol.

default image
customer #12387
Accounting, 6 pages
Essay (any type)
August 5, 2021
    

I was convinced that paper writing services are the fiction for naive students. But when it came to my research paper that was to be composed in 72 hours, I had no other options. I made the right choice when I ordered it from you!

default image
customer #12924
Ethics, 4 pages
Business Plan
August 5, 2021
    

I was also satisfied with the service. Usually, I write everything by myself, but this time ( I have no idea how it happens!) I missed the deadline. My writer was very responsible, wrote the essay quickly, and kept the instructions. Nice to know that such experts exist!

default image
customer #15677
Marketing, 10 pages
Annotated Bibliography
August 5, 2021
    

It is really affordable! The prices start from 9$, which is an excellent proposal on the market. Recently I worked with another service that took much more money and provided lower quality papers.

default image
customer #11234
Sociology, 9 pages
Research proposal
August 5, 2021
    

I am absolutely satisfied. I am first timer here. Revision was made quickly, and the author met my expectations. Thanks a lot. Paper is phenomenal.

default image
customer #15327
Economics, 5 pages
Essay (any type)
August 5, 2021
    

Having heard a lot of negative reviews about such services, I was a bit skeptical. However, our cooperation with Doctor My Essay was without pitfalls. I made two comments about the final work, and they re-wrote some parts very promptly. I am satisfied and will turn to them in the future.

default image
customer #17823
Human Resource Management, 2 pages
Research paper
August 5, 2021
    

It was my first experience in online ordering, and I was a bit nervous. However, this was for nothing. I’ve got a high mark!

default image
customer #12372
Public Relations, 3 pages
Dissertation
August 5, 2021
    

I understand that buying essays is a doubtful thing. You don’t put effort, don’t represent your ideas… However, I don’t perceive Doctor My Essay as a standard service. They don’t sell papers. They share high expertise!

default image
customer #12376
Journal article, 20 pages
Coursework
August 5, 2021
    

According to my previous experience, this service is really the best. They support the client and have competitive writers. I give them a perfect score!

default image
customer #19266
Political Science, 6 pages
Admission Essay
August 5, 2021
    

Nice service! It is cool that you can use the calculator on the main page and understand the price policy. For me, it is a huge plus!

default image
customer #11437
Tourism, 1 page
Discussion Essay
August 5, 2021
    

Thanks to God I found this service! If I didn’t send my research to the teacher on time, he would eat me. I tell you! However, with doctor my essay service, I met the deadline, and I am still alive.

default image
customer #12692
Philosophy, 5 pages
Report
August 5, 2021
    

Your service is excellent! Convenient and not expensive. Thanks for that!

default image
customer #10923
Psychology, 4 pages
Essay (any type)
August 5, 2021
    

If you have problems with time management, just like me, you need to cooperate with Doctor My Essay. Once you registered and made the order, you understand how easier it makes your life! Everything is online: ordering, communication… You can control the process everywhere and be sure that an expert will provide a high-level paper.

default image
customer #17823
Business, 8 pages

Calculate the price of your order

550 words
We'll send you the first draft for approval by September 11, 2018 at 10:52 AM
Total price:
$26
The price is based on these factors:
Academic level
Number of pages
Urgency
Basic features
  • Free title page and bibliography
  • Unlimited revisions
  • Plagiarism-free guarantee
  • Money-back guarantee
  • 24/7 support
On-demand options
  • Writer’s samples
  • Part-by-part delivery
  • Overnight delivery
  • Copies of used sources
  • Expert Proofreading
Paper format
  • 275 words per page
  • 12 pt Arial/Times New Roman
  • Double line spacing
  • Any citation style (APA, MLA, Chicago/Turabian, Harvard)

Our guarantees

Delivering a high-quality product at a reasonable price is not enough anymore.
That’s why we have developed 5 beneficial guarantees that will make your experience with our service enjoyable, easy, and safe.

Money-back guarantee

You have to be 100% sure of the quality of your product to give a money-back guarantee. This describes us perfectly. Make sure that this guarantee is totally transparent.

Read more

Zero-plagiarism guarantee

Each paper is composed from scratch, according to your instructions. It is then checked by our plagiarism-detection software. There is no gap where plagiarism could squeeze in.

Read more

Free-revision policy

Thanks to our free revisions, there is no way for you to be unsatisfied. We will work on your paper until you are completely happy with the result.

Read more

Privacy policy

Your email is safe, as we store it according to international data protection rules. Your bank details are secure, as we use only reliable payment systems.

Read more

Fair-cooperation guarantee

By sending us your money, you buy the service we provide. Check out our terms and conditions if you prefer business talks to be laid out in official language.

Read more