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External link to Question : 194.Gardener Company had the following transactions during January: Jan. 10Purchased merchandise : 1258884
Accounting

Question : 194.Gardener Company had the following transactions during January: Jan. 10Purchased merchandise : 1258884

      194.Gardener Company had the following transactions during January:  Jan. 10Purchased merchandise at a $8,900 price, invoice dated January 10, terms 1/10, n/30. 13Received a $900 credit memorandum (at full invoice price) for the return of merchandise that it purchased on January 10. 18Purchased merchandise at a $8,500 price, invoice dated January 18, terms 2/10, n/30. 27Paid for the merchandise purchased on January […]

External link to Question : 91. The most widely used depreciation method A. straight-lineB. double-declining-balanceC. units-of-productionD. units-of-production or double-declining-balance : 1239862
Accounting

Question : 91. The most widely used depreciation method A. straight-lineB. double-declining-balanceC. units-of-productionD. units-of-production or double-declining-balance : 1239862

    91. The most widely used depreciation method is   A. straight-line B. double-declining-balance C. units-of-production D. units-of-production or double-declining-balance   92. Equipment with a cost of $160,000, an estimated residual value of $40,000, and an estimated life of 15 years was depreciated by the straight-line method for 4 years. Due to obsolescence, it was determined that the useful life should be shortened by 3 years and the residual value […]

External link to Question : 121.  What would be the account balance in the Service : 1256632
Accounting

Question : 121.  What would be the account balance in the Service : 1256632

    121.  What would be the account balance in the Service Revenue account after the following transactions, assuming a zero beginning balance? Performed services and left a bill. $4,200 Performed services and collected immediately. $3,500 Performed services and billed customer. $2,200 Performed services on account. $6,000 Received partial payment on account. $1,500 A. $17,400 B. $10,900 C. $14,400 D. $  9,000 E. $15,900       122.  What would […]

External link to Question : 51.In accounting, depreciation refers to the a. allocation of asset cost. b. : 1244519
Accounting

Question : 51.In accounting, depreciation refers to the a. allocation of asset cost. b. : 1244519

51.In accounting, depreciation refers to the   a. allocation of asset cost. b. wearing away of an asset. c. decline in value of an asset. d. obsolescence of an asset.       52.Which of the following assets is not subject to depreciation?   a. Store fixtures b. Land c. Computers d. Art equipment       53.Which of the following accounts is a contra […]

External link to Question : 61. The calculation of the payback period for an investment when : 1225725
Accounting

Question : 61. The calculation of the payback period for an investment when : 1225725

  61. The calculation of the payback period for an investment when net cash flow is even (equal) is:  A. Cost of investment/Annual net cash flow B. Cost of investment/Total net cash flow C. Annual net cash flow/Cost of investment D. Total net cash flow/Cost of investment E. Total net cash flow/Annual net cash flow 62. Coffer Co. is analyzing two projects for the future. Assume that only one project can be […]

External link to Question : 91) When a company retires bonds early, the gain or : 1230256
Accounting

Question : 91) When a company retires bonds early, the gain or : 1230256

  91) When a company retires bonds early, the gain or loss on the retirement is the difference between the cash paid and the: A) face value of the bonds. B) original selling price of the bonds. C) maturity value of the bonds. D) carrying value of the bonds. 92) Hudson Corporation retires its bonds at 106 on January 1. The face value of the […]

External link to Question : 65.Brown invested $200,000 and Freeman invested $150,000 in a partnership. : 1236408
Accounting

Question : 65.Brown invested $200,000 and Freeman invested $150,000 in a partnership. : 1236408

  65.Brown invested $200,000 and Freeman invested $150,000 in a partnership. They agreed to an interest allowance on the partners’ beginning-year capital investments at 10%, with the balance to be shared equally. Under this agreement, the shares of the partners when the partnership earns $205,000 in income are:     A.$102,500 to Brown; $102,500 to Freeman. B.$117,143 to Brown; $87,857 to Freeman. C.$122,500 to Brown; $82,500 […]

External link to Question : 16) Brix, Inc., prepares frozen food for fast-food restaurants. It : 1211927
Accounting

Question : 16) Brix, Inc., prepares frozen food for fast-food restaurants. It : 1211927

  16) Brix, Inc., prepares frozen food for fast-food restaurants. It has two workstations, cooking and assembly. The cooking station is limited by the cooking time of the food. Assembly is limited by the speed of the workers. Assembly normally waits on food from cooking. Because the demand has increased in recent months to 2,800 dozen units, management is considering adding another cooking station or […]

External link to Question : Learning Objective 4-1 1) Comparing a company’s cash balance in its : 1253203
Accounting

Question : Learning Objective 4-1 1) Comparing a company’s cash balance in its : 1253203

    Learning Objective 4-1   1) Comparing a company’s cash balance in its accounting records with the bank statement is called ________. A) a bank reconciliation B) an external audit C) an internal audit D) adjusting the books   2) Preparing a bank reconciliation enables a company to ________. A) locate any errors, whether made by the bank or by the company B) make […]

External link to Question : 11) If the balance the bank statement does not equal : 1212703
Accounting

Question : 11) If the balance the bank statement does not equal : 1212703

11) If the balance on the bank statement does not equal the balance in the company’s cash account: A) the bookkeeper made a mistake. B) the bank made a mistake. C) both the bank and the bookkeeper made a mistake. D) it is perfectly normal for the two balances to be different.   12) A bank reconciliation: A) should be prepared by an employee who […]

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July 1, 2023
    

 

1) Members of OSHA's $100,000 club have:

A) invested more than $100,000 in health and safety equipment for employees.

B) purchased health and safety insurance coverage of at least $100,000.

C) received fines of $100,000 or more for safety or health violations.

D) paid more than $100,000 in workers' compensation claims.

 

2) Workplace safety is a significant issue because approximately ________ employees were injured on the job in 2009.

A) 3,000,000

B) 1,000,000

C) 500,000

D) 250,000

 

3) According to the doctrine of contributory negligence, employers were:

A) not responsible for an employees' injury when another employee's negligence caused the injury.

B) not liable for an employee's injuries when that employee's own negligence caused the injury.

C) responsible for compensating employees for all work-related illnesses and accidents.

D) not responsible for any employees' injuries under any circumstances.

 

4) Workers' compensation laws vary by state, but all are built on the theory that:

A) employees' personal health insurance should pay the medical costs of any injuries.

B) work-related accidents are costs of doing business and should be paid for by employers.

C) governments are responsible for paying the medical costs related to an employee's injuries.

D) employers are not responsible for employee injuries resulting from the employee's own negligence.

5) Which of the following is a true statement about workers' compensation?

A) Workers' compensation laws are federally mandated and enforced by OSHA.

B) Non-union firms are not required to carry workers' compensation insurance.

C) Workers' compensation is not mandatory in all U.S. states.

D) Most states had workers' compensation programs by 1911.

 

6) Workers' compensation:

A) pays only if the worker cannot.

B) is considered a no-fault system.

C) is mandatory in all fifty states.

D) covers employees' medical costs with Medicaid.

 

7) The primary goal of state workers' compensation laws is best described as:

A) providing a means for injured workers to receive care and income without having to sue.

B) determining the cause of work-related accidents and minimizing future accidents.

C) ensuring that employers are not held responsible for accidents caused by worker negligence.

D) spreading the cost of workplace accidents among all workers in the state.

 

8) The ________ holds that employers are not held liable for an employee's injuries when the negligence of another employee contributed to or caused the accident.

A) doctrine of contributory negligence

B) fellow-servant rule

C) general duty provision

D) "no-fault" rule

9) Which of the following is most likely true?

A) Workers' compensation is a federal program. OSHA is the organization that helps individual states meet workers' compensation standards.

B) Workers' compensation is a federal program that provides compensation to employees injured on the job. OSHA is a federal program that creates and enforces safety standards in the work place.

C) OSHA is a federal program that creates safety standards for work environments. Workers' compensation programs are created by the individual states to provide compensation for employees injured on the job.

D) OSHA is a federal program that provides compensation for employees injured on the job. Workers' compensation programs are state programs that provide compensation for employees injured on the job.

 

10) Workers' compensation:

A) replaces the worker's entire income until he/she is able to work again.

B) provides benefits for permanent, but not temporary, impairment.

C) gives survivors burial allowances and income benefits.

D) covers medical expenses up to $100,000.

 

 

 

default image
July 1, 2023
    

 

1) Members of OSHA's $100,000 club have:

A) invested more than $100,000 in health and safety equipment for employees.

B) purchased health and safety insurance coverage of at least $100,000.

C) received fines of $100,000 or more for safety or health violations.

D) paid more than $100,000 in workers' compensation claims.

 

2) Workplace safety is a significant issue because approximately ________ employees were injured on the job in 2009.

A) 3,000,000

B) 1,000,000

C) 500,000

D) 250,000

 

3) According to the doctrine of contributory negligence, employers were:

A) not responsible for an employees' injury when another employee's negligence caused the injury.

B) not liable for an employee's injuries when that employee's own negligence caused the injury.

C) responsible for compensating employees for all work-related illnesses and accidents.

D) not responsible for any employees' injuries under any circumstances.

 

4) Workers' compensation laws vary by state, but all are built on the theory that:

A) employees' personal health insurance should pay the medical costs of any injuries.

B) work-related accidents are costs of doing business and should be paid for by employers.

C) governments are responsible for paying the medical costs related to an employee's injuries.

D) employers are not responsible for employee injuries resulting from the employee's own negligence.

5) Which of the following is a true statement about workers' compensation?

A) Workers' compensation laws are federally mandated and enforced by OSHA.

B) Non-union firms are not required to carry workers' compensation insurance.

C) Workers' compensation is not mandatory in all U.S. states.

D) Most states had workers' compensation programs by 1911.

 

6) Workers' compensation:

A) pays only if the worker cannot.

B) is considered a no-fault system.

C) is mandatory in all fifty states.

D) covers employees' medical costs with Medicaid.

 

7) The primary goal of state workers' compensation laws is best described as:

A) providing a means for injured workers to receive care and income without having to sue.

B) determining the cause of work-related accidents and minimizing future accidents.

C) ensuring that employers are not held responsible for accidents caused by worker negligence.

D) spreading the cost of workplace accidents among all workers in the state.

 

8) The ________ holds that employers are not held liable for an employee's injuries when the negligence of another employee contributed to or caused the accident.

A) doctrine of contributory negligence

B) fellow-servant rule

C) general duty provision

D) "no-fault" rule

9) Which of the following is most likely true?

A) Workers' compensation is a federal program. OSHA is the organization that helps individual states meet workers' compensation standards.

B) Workers' compensation is a federal program that provides compensation to employees injured on the job. OSHA is a federal program that creates and enforces safety standards in the work place.

C) OSHA is a federal program that creates safety standards for work environments. Workers' compensation programs are created by the individual states to provide compensation for employees injured on the job.

D) OSHA is a federal program that provides compensation for employees injured on the job. Workers' compensation programs are state programs that provide compensation for employees injured on the job.

 

10) Workers' compensation:

A) replaces the worker's entire income until he/she is able to work again.

B) provides benefits for permanent, but not temporary, impairment.

C) gives survivors burial allowances and income benefits.

D) covers medical expenses up to $100,000.

 

 

 

default image
July 1, 2023
    

 

 

61. The _____ is the tendency to recall the items at the beginning and end of a list more readily than those in the middle. 
A. halo effect
B. ambiguity effect
C. serial position effect
D. framing effect

62. Having a better memory for items at the beginning of a list demonstrates the _____, whereas having a better memory for items at the end of a list demonstrates the _____. 
A. recency effect/primacy effect
B. primacy effect/recency effect
C. flashbulb memory effect/metamemory effect
D. metamemory effect/flashbulb memory effect

63. George has just graduated from college and is going on his first big job interview. He has learned that there are 10 other applicants for the job. On account of information on the serial position effect that he learned in his psychology class, George asks to be either the first or the last candidate interviewed. Why? 
A. The serial position effect predicts that either the first or the last job applicant interviewed will be remembered better than the applicant interviewed second.
B. The serial position effect predicts that the candidate interviewed in the "middle" position will be viewed less favorably than the other two applicants.
C. Research has shown that the serial position effect is used often by management to arbitrarily hire job applicants.
D. Research has shown that people interviewed either early or late in the day are evaluated most positively.

64. According to the serial position effect, if you are a waiter trying to remember all the orders for a table of 7, you should pay particular attention to the _____ orders, because these are the ones you are most likely to forget. 
A. first and second
B. sixth and seventh
C. third, fourth, and fifth
D. first, third, and seventh

65. Multiple choice exams involve testing a student's _____ abilities, whereas essay exams involve testing _____ abilities. 
A. episodic memory/semantic memory
B. semantic memory/episodic memory
C. recall/recognition
D. recognition/recall

66. Asking an eyewitness to describe a suspect's physical appearance to a sketch artist would be an example of a _____ task, whereas asking an eyewitness to identify a suspect on the basis of a lineup of five possible assailants is an example of a _____ task. 
A. recognition/recall
B. recall/recognition
C. rehearsal/elaboration
D. chunking/rehearsal

67. Samantha prides herself on "never forgetting a face," although she frequently cannot put the correct name with a specific "face." Samantha is really saying that she _____. 
A. is better at recognition than at recall
B. is better at recall than at recognition
C. is better at memory retrieval than at memory reconstruction
D. is better at memory reconstruction than at memory recall

68. The memory of emotionally significant events that people often recall with more accuracy and vivid imagery than everyday events is known as _____. 
A. precognition
B. working memory
C. procedural memory
D. flashbulb memory

69. Elaine is writing a paper about reactions to the tragedy that occurred at the Twin Towers on September 11, 2001. She interviews ten of her classmates and asks them to remember that day. She is surprised to learn that nearly all of the students she interviewed offer very detailed, vivid accounts of where they were and what they were doing when they first learned of the terrorist attacks. Elaine has discovered that most of her classmates have _____ of September 11, 2001. 
A. a repressed memory
B. a flashbulb memory
C. implicit but not explicit memories
D. extrasensory perception

70. Motivated forgetting and repressed memories are usually associated with what type of memories? 
A. Factual information from studying
B. Traumatic memories
C. Sensory memories
D. Flashbulb memory

 

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